neuroleptic malignant syndrome vs. malignant hyperthermia

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Aclamity

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Any way to distinguish between these clinically? Looking at FA it seems like both are just excessive muscle rigidity + autonomic instability + fever
 
The mechanism for both is the same, which is over-activation of the ryanodine channel on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

I say that because I know you can use dantrolene to treat both, and dantrolene shuts down the ryanodine channel.

The only "difference" I can think of is that a dopamine-agonist (e.g. bromocriptine) can be used instead of dantrolene to treat minor or nascent cases of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, whereas malignant hyperthermia due to succinylcholine + halothane (or one of the other -fluranes) needs to be treated with strictly dantrolene.
 
The mechanism for both is the same, which is over-activation of the ryanodine channel on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

I say that because I know you can use dantrolene to treat both, and dantrolene shuts down the ryanodine channel.

The only "difference" I can think of is that a dopamine-agonist (e.g. bromocriptine) can be used instead of dantrolene to treat minor or nascent cases of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, whereas malignant hyperthermia due to succinylcholine + halothane (or one of the other -fluranes) needs to be treated with strictly dantrolene.

thanks 🙂 you should really take this test now, before all this info falls out of your brain. you seem to be ready
 
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