How about this one:
A 20 to woman comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of mild to moderate hair growth over her face, breasts, and lower abdomen that has become slightly worse during the past 2 years. She has no history of serious illness and takes no meds. Menses occur every 28 days. Exam shows excessive hair growth over upper lip, chin, lower abdomen, and pubic area. Three days after the onset of her menstrual periods, serum studies show:
FSH - 10
LH - 12
DHEAS - 1.5 (N=0.5-5.4)
17alpha-hydroxyprogesterone - 25 (N=20-300)
Testosterone - 2.8 (N<3.5)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient hair growth?
A. Decreased aromatase activity
B. Decreased progesterone concentration
C. Increased estrogen concentration
D. Increased 5alpha reductase activity
E. increased testosterone concentration
I guessed A which was wrong. So I assume the answer is E, but not sure what the diagnosis is and why. Any explanation would be very helpful.
Also this one:
A 42 yo woman G3P3 comes to the physician for a routine exam. Over the past year, menses have occurred at irregular 2-3 month intervals and have lasted 7-21 days. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She has type 2 DM treated with metformin. She is 168 cm (5ft 6in) and weights 88kg (195lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. Physical exam shows an irregular enlarged uterus measuring 12 x 8 x 6cm. An endometrial biopsy specimen shows atypical complex hyperplasia. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Age
B. Anovulation
C. Leiomyomata uteri
D. Metformin therpay
E Multiparity
I chose D like an idiot. thinking if could be A or B, but more likely B. Wanted to know if thats right. I know age is a risk factor, but usually the hyperplasia is post menopausal.