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Greatnt249 has the exact same question/issue, so my explanation might have been inadequate, I tried to go in depth with my reply to The Knife & Gun Club.I still don't understand why I should think of PMR when someone comes in with a unilateral HA and elevated inflammatory markers. Where do those symptoms fit in with PMR? Don't you need some sort of girdle weakness?
This entire thing doesn't make sense.
It's not good enough to have overlap between the two. You have to have a least one symptom of PMR to have PMR, rights
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is present in 40–60% of patients with giant-cell arteritis (GCA). The concern is not making a diagnosis of PMR (who cares about that), but making sure you have the correct diagnosis of GCA. Symptoms of PMR in someone with headache and inflammatory markers is supportive of a diagnosis of GCA. Other symptoms are important to ask as well (i.e jaw claudication). The absence of symptoms/signs cannot exclude the diagnosis of GCA, even normal inflammatory markers, but if there are multiple supporting symptoms/signs the probability this is GCA is higher. If it is a slam dunk diagnosis of GCA in a patient with isolated headache, you could put them on oral steroids with urgent outpatient follow up. So those questions over the phone are relevant in determining disposition and treatment.
However, if all that you have is a new headache and elevated inflammatory markers, this could still be GCA, but you are less confident. This could also be meningitis, intracranial infections, tumor etc. Differential is broad. I wouldn't feel comfortable sending that patient home without further investigations at the very least, and I would not start them on empiric steroids until I eliminate the possibility of infection. Does that make sense?