I see many articles for peripheral nerve stimulation in which most if not all of them report a positive response to a block of the same nerve prior to placing the stimulator. I see similar regarding blocking nerve roots and DRG stimulation. At a recent course I had the opportunity to discuss this with a guru that I respect. His response was " the MOA of stim is not the same as a local anesthetic block so it makes no sense to predict a response based on a block. Do you do a spinal to predict response to conventional SCS?”
Interested in everyone's thoughts on this. For instance I had a patient come in with textbook meralgia paresthetica. US block performed to LFCN. The nerve was markedly swollen and surrounded by fluid. Block with 2% lidocaine did NOTHING. Is he now absolutely not a candidate for PNS, DRG, etc?? If I consider DRG do I need to block T12 and L1?
Interested in everyone's thoughts on this. For instance I had a patient come in with textbook meralgia paresthetica. US block performed to LFCN. The nerve was markedly swollen and surrounded by fluid. Block with 2% lidocaine did NOTHING. Is he now absolutely not a candidate for PNS, DRG, etc?? If I consider DRG do I need to block T12 and L1?
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