Fair enough, I would agree, and your argument absolutely holds (a logical argument by the way, meaning even YOU can use logic
)
The flipside was my original point too. Look, I never once have made a claim "Psychologists should have RxP because it would help more people" nor even the more generalized "Psychologists should have Rxp" I merely have said what the intent of such policy was, or at least what the justification given by politicians was. Having said this, I concede there is NO WAY for us to know true motivations, and I would especially NEVER claim this to be altruist, but the discussion of altruism leads us into a talk far too off topic. My argument is that those opposing, at least what I have read on here, have arguments that are ridiculous on many levels, and only supported by anecdote, particularly anecdote from physicians such as yourself that have a BIASED interest in whether or not we get RxP.
This simply achieves in suggesting that ALL RxP use, by physicians, dentists, PAs, Nurses, psychologists etc should be better regulated, managed etc... So in essense you CONCEDE that psychologists should have limited RxP, but just that it should be regulated. I could concur.
You can view it this way but that would be wrong. You would be wrong because you are missing the entire process of public policy formulation to begin with. I refer you to any one of these books for enlightenment
http://www.amazon.com/s/ref=nb_sb_noss?url=search-alias%3Daps&field-keywords=public+policy&x=0&y=0
I am glad you brought up your time as a Physician (albeit a very new physician) because that itself can help already account for your negative view towards RxP... I understand, hey if I were a psychiatrist I too would not want to lose the money I get from RxP, it could seriously hurt your income.
"...there is no evidence to make one decision better than another..." But I thought you said there was ample evidence? One minute there is evidence and another minute there is no? I am sure you will retort by saying that "gee well these are two different scenarios" but I will preemptive refute that by saying absolutely not.
Also, your completely uninformed understanding of how clinical psychology works limits yours capability to input in this argument. Do you think that a clinical psychologist working in a hospital having to decide X vs Y is any less a decision maker on the front line than a psychiatrist having to make X decision over Y???? Are you mad?
Are you a psychiatrist? If not than we can automatically discount you, but if so, then let me ask. Are the clinical populations any different than psychologists see that psychiatrists don't? If your answer is yes, than I would seriously doubt your training, and if your answer is no, then you acknowledge that in fact training as a clinical psychologist is at least equal when it comes to experience with "psychiatric" populations.
How many years of Rx training did you have? And answer this one careful because I know the answer. Lets say, for arguments sake, that you had 4 years of med and 4 years of residency that all involved Rx training, although we know that not all of your training was Rx-focused. So 8 years. Well ok, so a clinical psychologist gets ~5 years of training, at least 2-3 of those years is spent with 15-20hr a week of direct clinical/patient interaction. Then a postdoc of at least 1 year of training, then with NM standard you have 2 years of DEDICATED Rx training plus 1-2 years of dedicated Rx supervision... That seems like plenty of training and FRONT-LINE experience as you say...
So now that we have successfully refuted your frontline training argument, what is your next argument?
Refering to credentials again, we will discuss this more below. But to address this comment is that, look, have you practiced in NM or Louisiana? Have you had even a single clerkship or rotation in either of these states? If no, then your experience is irrelevant since you already discount logical argument the only foundation for argument you have is by experience, but we will now prove that you haven't even had experience in a state where RxP is legal for psychologists. On these grounds anything you say are utterly incompatible.
Furthermore, you now admit how little you know, maybe you should have two years of dedicated Rx training plus 1-2 years of dedicated Rx supervision? I may even be willing to conjecture that some of the prescribing psychologists may know more than you! I will concede this is merely conjecture based on your statement of a lack of knowledge.
YES, EXACTLY!!! Your framework cannot be trusted because you have a vested interest in psychologists NOT having RxP.
My whole point was that using PERSONAL EXPERIENCE as a way in which to make argument whether on scientific or logical grounds is utterly useless, ESPECIALLY since you have never even practiced in a state that has RxP for psychologists (I am waiting to hear about this of course, but based on your profile and where you trained I would guess not).
How do you KNOW that my experience is limited to the classroom?? You don;t know me, you can't have experienced my experiences, and I have never offered them up because they would be equally useless as your limited personal experience in this debate.