Q on partial agonists - USMLERX Spoiler

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Tristy

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I've been looking for ever and came up with this but I don't know if it's correct:

Is it true that a partial agonist can act as a competitive antagonist because they both compete for the same enzyme receptor occupancy and thus decrease the net receptor activation?

So, say you have an "equation" with enzymes and substrates, and the final substrate inhibits by neg. FB the first enzyme. But you have an enzyme in the middle that has a partial agonist (call it X1, with more affinity for the enzyme than for Z) e.g. Z---> Y (X1 is the partial agonist) and the complete thing is along the lines of

W-->Z-->Y--->P, and P does the -FB on W. So, in the presence of X1 there would be less FB inhibition on W than on the absence of X1 due to the above explanation?

My reasoning was that if X1 decreases the activity of the enzyme to go from Z--->Y, then there would be less Y and less P, and so less inhibition on W. (It sounds like a tongue twister to me, sorry! :oops:)

I tried to substitute all letters and rephrase the question for copyright issues, but I'm sorry if I inadvertently did something wrong and mods feel free to delete the post.

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yes a partial agonist has a similar effect of a competitive antagonist (or is noncompetitive?) in the presence of full agonist.
 
Last edited:
Thank you! Mystery solved!

So do you think my reasoning for the question is correct?
 
Thank you for your reply :D

How sad is it that it's Sat night and I'm here studying? Ugh... I just want to tear my hair out!!!! J/K. I just need a real BF, hehe :p
 
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