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I was doing this MKSAP 18 question:
82-yo F: we're told in the question stem that she's been previously "diagnosed with seronegative (negative RF, negative CCP) RA". She's attempted sulfasalazine, and infliximab, to no avail. She also has HTN/CKD. The physical exam describes classic RA features. Labs show negative RF, negative anit CCP, as described in the history. Xrays show chondrocalcinosis in knees/wrists.
Question: what do you offer next for treatment
A Adalimumab
B Allopurinol
C Low-dose prednisone
D Methotrexate
E NSAID therapy
Correct answer is C, Low-dose prednisone (I picked MTX, because it hadn't been attempted yet, and you can treat a seroneg-RA with MTX).
Now, in the answer explanation, it states that this really isnt sero-neg RA...it's actually CPPD (chronic calcium pyrophosphate disease). Therefore your choices are steroids and NSAIDS (you avoid the latter here b/c the patient has CKD).
I understand the explanation and the logic here. And in real life, this makes total sense. I'm sure people are incorrectly diagnosed with RA all of the time, when they really have something else (like OA, or CPPD).
But here's my question: for the sake of the boards, can I not trust what's given to me in the stem of the question? If I'm told the patient has sero-neg RA, can't I take that at face value? If I'm to question everything, then how do I know that the patient really has CKD? (no serum creatinine was given). or HTN?(no BP was given)
82-yo F: we're told in the question stem that she's been previously "diagnosed with seronegative (negative RF, negative CCP) RA". She's attempted sulfasalazine, and infliximab, to no avail. She also has HTN/CKD. The physical exam describes classic RA features. Labs show negative RF, negative anit CCP, as described in the history. Xrays show chondrocalcinosis in knees/wrists.
Question: what do you offer next for treatment
A Adalimumab
B Allopurinol
C Low-dose prednisone
D Methotrexate
E NSAID therapy
Correct answer is C, Low-dose prednisone (I picked MTX, because it hadn't been attempted yet, and you can treat a seroneg-RA with MTX).
Now, in the answer explanation, it states that this really isnt sero-neg RA...it's actually CPPD (chronic calcium pyrophosphate disease). Therefore your choices are steroids and NSAIDS (you avoid the latter here b/c the patient has CKD).
I understand the explanation and the logic here. And in real life, this makes total sense. I'm sure people are incorrectly diagnosed with RA all of the time, when they really have something else (like OA, or CPPD).
But here's my question: for the sake of the boards, can I not trust what's given to me in the stem of the question? If I'm told the patient has sero-neg RA, can't I take that at face value? If I'm to question everything, then how do I know that the patient really has CKD? (no serum creatinine was given). or HTN?(no BP was given)