GC i quoted it straight out of my princeton gchem book.
but what you're saying does make sense, but where did you get that equation from i dont get it (or what the variables on the exponents stand for)
That's just the Van der Waals equation, but here's what the variables are.
(observed pressure + (an^2/V^2))(volume of container-nb) = nRT
(Note, I had volume of container^-nb) before, but that ^ should NOT be in there, it's just (Volume - nb).
a = a constant that gives the amount of IM force the particles act on each other.
n = number of moles of gas
V = Volume
b = a constant that gives the volume occupied by a mole of the particles.
Remember, the Van der Waals equation and the Ideal Gas Law are really the same thing.
Van der Waals Equation: (observed pressure + (an^2/V^2))(volume of container-nb) = nRT
Ideal Gas Law: PV = nRT
(observed pressure + (an^2/V^2)) = Ideal P
(observed volume-nb) = Ideal V
a & b are specific to a given gas. a is in J*m^3/moles^2... don't ask me how they arrived at this, but the units will cancel. B is given in m^3/mole.
So we have real pressure
PLUS the a(n^2/V^2) equation, which will account for the IM forces between the particles of a real gas. Since a Joule is a Newton*meter, J*m^3/moles^2 is equal to N*m^4/moles^2. Moles^2 will cancel out with the n^2 variable, and V^2 in the denominator will cancel out the m^4 and we'll be left with N/m^2, which is the same as a pascal. So we
ADD that to the real pressure to give us the equivalent of the ideal pressure.
That might be confusing, but it helps me. If I get lost, sometimes making sure the units are right keeps me on track.
We also have the real volume, but we need to subtract the volume of the actual particles to make it comparable to the volume of an ideal gas, whose particles do not take up space. This one is much more self-explanatory. We take the observed volume, and
SUBTRACT (moles*(m^3/mole), and we know what the volume of this gas would be if it were ideal and its particles didn't occupy volume.
Did I make it better or worse?