retrograde chromatolysis vs

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Miracoli

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Following optic nerve damage, transneuronal degeneration can be seen in
a) Cons and rods
b) bipolar neurons of the retina
c) Ganglion cells of the retina
d) optic chiasm
e) optic tract
f) lateral geniculate body
 
Following optic nerve damage, transneuronal degeneration can be seen in
a) Cons and rods
b) bipolar neurons of the retina
c) Ganglion cells of the retina
d) optic chiasm
e) optic tract
f) lateral geniculate body
By the way, were you going to post an answer to your spare/no spare receptor questions? That would be much appreciated! 🙂
 
it's always proximal nerve degeneration (wallerian), so I'd guess D as well, but it might be C. Aren't ganglion cells the ones that project axons down?
 
it's always proximal nerve degeneration (wallerian), so I'd guess D as well, but it might be C. Aren't ganglion cells the ones that project axons down?

Im going with C although my initial thought was wrong I still think its C because ganglion cells in this case are involved in connecting rods to the bi cells. So I dunno but I feel like it would be affected the most. total guess.

Is this even USMLE tested.
 
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Im going with C although my initial thought was wrong I still think its C because ganglion cells in this case are involved in connecting rods to the bi cells. So I dunno but I feel like it would be affected the most. total guess.

Is this even USMLE tested.

yea, I've seen a few Uworld questions based on this principle.
 
yea, I've seen a few Uworld questions based on this principle.
I believe it goes--rods cones-->afferent to bipolar cells-->afferent to ganglion cells-->afferent (via optic nerve) to chiasm. If that's correct, then a lesion at the optic nerve should be going proximally to the chiasm. Unless I'm getting something mixed up, I believe the optic nerve is project out TO the ganglion cells
 
I believe it goes--rods cones-->afferent to bipolar cells-->afferent to ganglion cells-->afferent (via optic nerve) to chiasm. If that's correct, then a lesion at the optic nerve should be going proximally to the chiasm. Unless I'm getting something mixed up, I believe the optic nerve is project out TO the ganglion cells
After reviewing I am inclined to agree with you
 
Isn't wallerian deg. an anterograde degeneration? Axonal swelling, etc...so, its a distal loss, not px loss. Retrograde degen occurs later. I will go with D. But after 7 days, I will go with C. Let us know the correct ans. thanks.
 
Isn't wallerian deg. an anterograde degeneration? Axonal swelling, etc...so, its a distal loss, not px loss. Retrograde degen occurs later. I will go with D. But after 7 days, I will go with C. Let us know the correct ans. thanks.
Wallerian is anterograde, but the NEURONAL CHANGES happen retrograde. I guess I don't know what is meant by "transneuronal degeneration"
 
Wallerian is anterograde, but the NEURONAL CHANGES happen retrograde. I guess I don't know what is meant by "transneuronal degeneration"

do you mean retrograde neuronal changes as in chromatolysis?

I looked up for transneuronal degeneration, which is an active glutamate attack on nearby neurons, killing them. It can be either anterograde (post synaptic neuronal death) or retrograde (presynpatic neuronal death). So, I will go with b, and it could also be f if it's a neuron of LGB. What do you think? Good Question though - got me to review some neuro.
 
wait, now I'm confused. I might have been wrong with Wallerian degen in my first post and now I'm confused by the wording transneuronal degeneration, lol.

Is this uworld? If so, a qid would be supremely helpful!
 
F is correct.
ANTEROGRADE DEGENERATION=WALLERIAN DEGENERATION=degeneration of the axon distal to the site of injury (optic nerve and tract in this case)
RETROGRADE CHROMATOLYSIS=axonal reaction=occurs proximal to the site of injury and involves changes in the cell body(loss of Nissl substance, swelling of the cell body, eccentric location of the nucleus )(Ganglion cells of the retina in this case)
TRANSNEURONAL anterograde DEGENERATION=degeneration of the POSTSYNAPTIC neuron due to deafferentiation (lateral geniculate bodies in this case)

It is not a U world, it is Miracoli's world🙂
Welcome to Miracoli's world🙂
 
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F is correct.
ANTEROGRADE DEGENERATION=WALLERIAN DEGENERATION=degeneration of the axon distal to the site of injury (optic nerve and tract in this case)
RETROGRADE CHROMATOLYSIS=axonal reaction=degeneration of the axon proximal to the site of injury and changes in the cell body(loss of Nissl substance, swelling of the cell body, eccentric location of the nucleus )(Ganglion cells of the retina in this case)
TRANSNEURONAL anterograde DEGENERATION=degeneration of the POSTSYNAPTIC neuron due to loss of deafferentiation (lateral geniculate bodies in this case)

Transneuronal degeneration can be either anterograde or retrogrde (so either presynpatic or postsynaptic nerves) from what I saw online.

can you post the answer/explaination to two other pharm questions u posted?
 
Let say you have 3 orders of neurons in a sensory pathway.
N1--------------------axon1------------------------>N2---------------------------------->N3
-If there is lesion of axon1, there will be a) retrograde chromatolysis of N1, b) anterograde (wallerian) degeneration of axon1 c) transneuronal(transsynaptic) ANTEROGRADE degeneration of N2
-If there is lesion of N3, there will be transneuronal(transsynaptic) RETROGRADE degeneration of N2
Capito?
 
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