Today, I was selling some clonidine to a patient's husband. The PCP had taken great care to emphasis the SIG for this new script. I went ahead and emphasized the instructions and the importance for the patient to not stop taking the medication suddenly. The patient's husband was appreciative of the counseling and I felt good about the encounter. After the patient left, the pharmacist on duty pulled me aside and told me that what I'd done was a HIPAA violation and that I should have just told the man to have his wife call with questions. I'm not going to try to decipher the language of the Act to see if I really did violate the law, I kind of stand by what I did for the following reasons: 1. The man brought in the script. He knew his wife was getting clonidine. 2. The wife was elderly. The SIG was involved beyond T PO QD. Clonidine can be problematic in the elderly. I have a professional duty to make every attempt to ensure patient safety. If the man was picking up something that had been called in, I might have done that differently, but since the script was brought in by the spouse I felt that HIPAA was kind of irrelevant. What do you guys think? What are the policies at your pharmacies?