I am hoping to get some insight from others experience, thanks in advance. When I get orders for a protonix drip and I see the patient is already on oral protonix I know that the doctor doesn't want to continue the oral protonix. If I get an order for a heparin infusion and the patient is currently on scheduled heparin subq injections I know the doctor doesn't want them both. What about when a doc orders a diltiazem infusion and the patient is on it orally already do you think if there is no d/c oral diltiazem order that the doc wants the patient on both? Many of our physicans when they order infusions don't write to d/c the oral or injeciton form that they are on (heparin, protonix,etc ....) and it is just a defacto order to d'c them when we get the infusion order. What do you think about the diltiazem infusion situation? Thanks.