Can someone go over Question 58 from the PS section of AAMC 8R? Correct answer is C - colour of the solution is due to nickel II because Nickel II has unfilled d orbitals. I know that Nickel II has lost 2 electrons, and thus has a charge of +2 but aren't d orbitals anomolous meaning that electrons move from 4s into 3d to fill them up because a 3d5 and 3d10 is more stable? I also thought that valence electrons react and since they are in the s and p orbitals, I thought that answer choice A would be correct but it is not. I am confused. Please explain. Thank you. PS I don't have the complete solutions (only the solutions that mention which choices are correct, if someone else has the complete solutions that explain each choice and why it is correct/incorrect, can you please share via PM). Thanks!