I'm not trying to be devil's advocate here - but why all the dogma? Do you know whose theoretical dogma you are actually supporting here? If not, why are you dogmatic about it?
#1. What are the "consequences" that you refer to? The epidemiology of the average child's refractive error averages plano at age 6. The average child does not need to wear correction to achieve this target, and they are hyperopic up until this age. Hence, in the average child, a hyperopic refraction leads to emmetropization.
#2. If (as you suggest) a highly-hyperopic child is fully corrected, isn't it possible that will affect his/her emmetropization? What proof do you have that suggests a full cycloplege Rx in a child is most helpful to them? Children that young have and use accommodation.
I'm more likely to leave a child with a bit of plus (say 1 to 1.5 D), in a child who is highly hyperopic, i.e. whatever Rx that allows them to approximate their age-matched norm.