Assuming the same dose of metoprolol is used for the "drug-X alone" graph, if in fact it has beta-2 blocking action, why wouldn't the bar be positive (implying bronchoconstriction) then? It's almost as though the beta-1-selective blocker, at high doses, doesn't cause bronchoconstriction on its own via blocking beta-2, but instead merely prevents optimal bronchodilation in the presence of a beta-2 agonist.