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Could someone please explain why a beta-1-selective blocker would cause the findings in the bottom graph?
Cheers,
Cheers,
If it was b2# then epi +b2# shd have zero resist
B1# at high doses also block some B2 recep so graph shows some bronchoconstriction
If it was b2# then epi +b2# shd have zero resist
B1# at high doses also block some B2 recep so graph shows some bronchoconstriction
This preferential effect is not absolute, however, and at higher doses, Lopressor (metoprolol tartrate) also inhibits beta2 adrenoreceptors, chiefly located in the bronchial and vascular musculature.
Relative beta1 selectivity has been confirmed by the following: (1) In normal subjects, Lopressor (metoprolol tartrate) is unable to reverse the beta2-mediated vasodilating effects of epinephrine.
Assuming the same dose of metoprolol is used for the "drug-X alone" graph, if in fact it has beta-2 blocking action, why wouldn't the bar be positive (implying bronchoconstriction) then? It's almost as though the beta-1-selective blocker, at high doses, doesn't cause bronchoconstriction on its own via blocking beta-2, but instead merely prevents optimal bronchodilation in the presence of a beta-2 agonist.
Assuming the same dose of metoprolol is used for the "drug-X alone" graph, if in fact it has beta-2 blocking action, why wouldn't the bar be positive (implying bronchoconstriction) then? It's almost as though the beta-1-selective blocker, at high doses, doesn't cause bronchoconstriction on its own via blocking beta-2, but instead merely prevents optimal bronchodilation in the presence of a beta-2 agonist.