Can somebody explain what this sentence is trying to convey

[anondukie]

“Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are simply estrogen/progesterone (or progesterone-only) preparations. These block conception by inhibiting LH and FSH release through negative feedback, thereby inhibiting ovulation. When a woman takes the placebo pills at the end of the month, withdrawal menstruation still occurs because estrogen and progesterone levels drop, but there is no egg that passes with the menstrual flow.”

It's worded rather strangely and I'm not entirely sure that I understand what they're trying to get at. Any insight will be greatly appreciated!

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[hopefulERdoc251]

From what my interpretation is, this implies that when you take the placebo, you have no negative feedback of LH/FSH, meaning that they are able to function normally, causing menstruation (bleeding aka fake period). But with this "fake period", there's no egg that's "washed away" because normally with menstruation, the bleeding removes the egg.

 

[theonlytycrane]

just to add to what @hopefulERdoc251 said above, remember that estrogen and progesterone exert negative feedback on LH / FSH. Without the inhibition, LH and FSH stimulate menstruation. However, no egg developed in the first place due to the contraceptive so the "withdrawal menstruation" occurs as described.