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The Kaplan book states that "The frequency of the standing wave given by n=2 is known as the first overtone or second harmonic. This standing wave has one-half the wavelength and twice the frequency of the first harmonic."
Okay. So this is confusing as heck because in this link, http://www.physicsclassroom.com/class/sound/Lesson-5/Guitar-Strings, shows that the second harmonic has a full wave, whereas the first harmonic has half the wave, but the Kaplan statement I wrote above says the exact opposite. Or maybe I am reading it incorrectly. Can someone kindly clear the confusion up. I am clearly seeing a full wave at the 2nd harmonic. Help. Thank you very much!
Okay. So this is confusing as heck because in this link, http://www.physicsclassroom.com/class/sound/Lesson-5/Guitar-Strings, shows that the second harmonic has a full wave, whereas the first harmonic has half the wave, but the Kaplan statement I wrote above says the exact opposite. Or maybe I am reading it incorrectly. Can someone kindly clear the confusion up. I am clearly seeing a full wave at the 2nd harmonic. Help. Thank you very much!