DSM question

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toby jones

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I can't remember how many different dx categories there are in the DSM, but I do know that I've encountered that somewhere in my readings... (three hundred and something I think - though I'm not sure exactly how they count them (e.g., types only or sub-types as well, with or without modifiers (on each type (and) sub-type) such as 'severe' or 'in remission' etc)

Does anyone know whether anyone has counted the number of symptoms in the DSM? Some symptoms occur in more than one dx so it wouldn't just be a matter of counting the categories then counting the number of symptoms for each category and then adding them together. I'm a bit worried that it might be hard to count them if there is a slight variation in the symptoms between different dx categories (e.g., low mood for a couple weeks... months... years... - 3 symptoms or just one symptom where further distinctions are dimensional?) I could of course do it manually, but it would be fairly time consuming...

This is in the context of the 'categories vs dimensions' debate. I know there has been controversy as to what appropriate dimensions might be if the DSM moved to dimensional. I'm interested in the prospects of moving from a categorical 'syndromes with unity' approach to a ticking off the symptoms list (and maybe rating them for severity as well). But... How many symptoms would there be if one used the current DSM as the source of the symptoms? If anyone knows of a reference for something along these lines I'd be grateful. Thanks.

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This is something that has been discussed during a couple of grand rounds sessions I've attended over the past year or so. The DSM has received some criticism (unjustifiably so in some cases) in the sense that some symptoms overlap. This isn't too different from many physical disease differentials, however (i.e. the differential for RLQ pain includes appendicitis, bowel obstruction, diverticulitis, ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, hernia, inflammatory bowel disease, IBS, nephrolithiasis, Meckel's divertic, mesenteric adenitis, Mittelschmerz, ovarian cyst or torsion, PID, tubo-ovarion abscess, psoas abscess, spontanteous/threatened abortion, etc), the difference being the presence of confirmatory tests, however.

I seem to recall a section in the DSM V taskforce text mentioning something about the classification and/or categories of unique symptoms in the DSM-IV TR. I doubt they mentioned the actual number of unique symptoms, however.
 
Yeah. 'Pain' and 'coughing' similarly come up as symptoms in a number of distinct disorders. I'm not worried about the degree of overlap in diagnostic criteria for different disorders. In fact... My worry is the opposite - that a list of symptoms would take too long for clinician's to fill out and hence it would be clinically unmanageable... So... It would be good for me if there was considerable overlap such that a list of symptoms (that are currently in the DSM) wouldn't be too long. Ideally... They could be collected under a smaller amount of sub-headers as well and super dooper ideally... The whole process wouldn't take any longer than the current system (once clinicians got the hang of it).

The idea... Would then be to compile data on what symptoms as a matter of empirical fact tend to be found in clusters.

Then on to the second stage of science - ho!

;-)

> I seem to recall a section in the DSM V taskforce text mentioning something about the classification and/or categories of unique symptoms in the DSM-IV TR. I doubt they mentioned the actual number of unique symptoms, however.

Damn.

Thanks for your response though :)
 
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> the DSM V taskforce text

?
Do you have a name for that?
 
Thanks for those two reccomendations, I should check them out.

> What about that decision tree thing in the large DSM.

You know I hadn't thought about those in relation to this issue... Interesting...

What I'm thinking of... Is that there is this disclaimer in the front of the DSM (sorry I don't have it with me right now to quote from it) but it basically says that while the current system is categorical the APA doesn't think that there is a categorical difference between people who are disordered and people who aren't and that it can be fuzzy (in principle) whether a person has one kind of disorder compared with another.

They said something about how they thought a dimensional system would more acurately capture reality but that there were some problems with shifting to a dimensional system.

One problem is that there isn't any consensus on what the dimensions should be. I guess the models for dimensionality come from psychologists work on personality dimensions. The trouble is that... While you can get some nice internal consistency going on (where different tests give you the same result) it really is unclear that personality works like that. In particular... People change according to context and people change over time and it is unclear that the current dimensions are very robust or predictive.

So... What would the dimensions of mental disorder be? WTF knows...

My idea... Was that we still don't really have 'syndromes with unity' (on the assumption that there are such things. Basically... Behavioural symptoms that tend to be found clustered together. One can think of birds as a cluster of features like 'feathers', 'wings', 'beak', 'two legged' etc and those features are found in different entities in nature. The idea was then that if we had a list of features (behavioural symptoms) then we could see which behavioural symptoms tended to occur with certain other behavioural symptoms. Then we might find some 'syndromes with unity' that are produced by (and stabilised by) the same kinds of causal mechanisms. Because... The search for causal mechanisms isn't going so well at present. And if the symptoms weren't found in clusters then we should give up on the whole 'syndrome with unity' idea and just worry about studying (and treating) particular symptoms rather than 'disorders'.

But... What features to include on the symptom list? I thought we might be able to start by listing the behavioural symptoms currently in the DSM. We might be able to cluster them too so that people could see the header 'Psychosis' and skip through the section of symptoms like 'hallucinations' and 'delusions' etc if their patient didn't have any psychotic features. I mean... Ideally the whole thing wouldn't take longer than picking a diagnostic category. One could retain all the categorical features by having arbitrary thresholds, too.

But... Looking at the behavioural symptoms that occur for different diagnoses and the idea seems a whole bunch more problematic.

Is this idea crazy in a way that I haven't comprehended as yet???

If anyone else is working on this (or knows references for people working on this) I'd be grateful...
 
One problem is that there isn't any consensus on what the dimensions should be. I guess the models for dimensionality come from psychologists work on personality dimensions.

Hey, I've been thinking about this for a while. I'm not sure that it would be good for the DSM right away, but it seems like if we just came up with a bunch of different dimensional measurements and tested a bunch of schizophrenics, for instance, with them we would be able to find nodes in which certain dimensions clustered, and then use these nodes to describe schizophrenia subtypes. It'll probably end up similar to the subtypes we have now, but at least there will be a bit more objective a test. Of course, my real hope is that by using those subtypes rather than the current ones, we will be able to find better correlation with genetic studies... then we'll be able to find the real subtypes.

Is psychosis like blood pressure? There's just a certain point where we say, "this is high enough to consider you sick", but that specific point itself is not naturally delineated? That would mean that a bunch of people have some crazies, but not enough to pathologize it... unless we call it "pre-psychosis".

I kind of think that that's how it has to be. Well, psychosis has something to do with too much dopamine somewhere in the brain. Is there any principled reason why we can't measure neurotransmitter levels? Is it because they dissapear too quickly and don't travel far? Can't we give somebody deuterium L-dopa and measure the concentration of dopamine across different regions of the brain with MRI? Of course, that would increase the psychosis, but we would be able to use it to determine natural dopamine levels. It's just like standard addition in analytical chemistry, provided that L-Dopa has a linear response in small doses. Maybe I'll try it on some rabbits... (edit: never mind, that would never work... oh well)

By the way, Toby Jones, do you think that schizophrenia is a problem with the "software" and not the "hardware"? Or is it a hardware problem? Also, what is the difference between the two when our brains only execute the one set of (complex) algorithms? I have to say, I'm pretty suspicious of the computer analogy, but we've discussed that before.
 
> it seems like if we just came up with a bunch of different dimensional measurements...

That is a problem. What are the different dimensions? For all the airtime the 'big 5' gets the big 5 correlate poorly with behaviour and (more in particular) with behaviour across contexts.

> my real hope is that by using those subtypes rather than the current ones, we will be able to find better correlation with genetic studies...

Trouble is that if my identical twin has schizophrenia there is only a 48% chance that I will have. So... If my identical twin has schizophrenia then it is more likely than not that I WON'T have schizophrena. I think this finding... Problematises the relevance of discovering the genetic basis slightly. Best candidate that we have for the genetic basis is some three gene locus that is present in about 7% of people with schizophrenia - and about 14% without. Personally... I don't think genetic research is going to get us very far... You might as well look ath the genetic basis of voting behaviour or believing in God.

> Is psychosis like blood pressure? There's just a certain point where we say, "this is high enough to consider you sick", but that specific point itself is not naturally delineated? That would mean that a bunch of people have some crazies, but not enough to pathologize it... unless we call it "pre-psychosis".

I like the dimensional way of looking at things. People often think psychosis (delusions lets say) are all or none. But there are plenty of examples of things that show that the delusional non-delusional distinction is problematic. Lets say (simplistically) that delusion is caused by too little dopamine. How little is too little? Note: We can't justify believing that someone is delusional by citing 'too little dopamine' then justify saying 'they don't have enough dopamine' by citing the delusional effects of the amount of dopamine they have. That would be circular...

Imagine that dopamine falls on a bell curve (it doesn't have to - it can be skewed or whatever you like). Where do we draw the line as to what counts as 'too little'? Doesn't the problem with drawing the behavioural line recurr at the drawing the neurological line? How about trying to draw a genetic line?

What makes xy a 'functional' sex and xx a 'functional' sex and xxx a 'dysfunctional' sex? If we appeal to group selection then it wouldn't constitute an evoltuionary dysfunction if these people invest heavily in their kin...

> By the way, Toby Jones, do you think that schizophrenia is a problem with the "software" and not the "hardware"? Or is it a hardware problem?

We might find differences in people with schizophrenia than in people without. Don't think we have any terrific candidates yet, but I suppose we might find them. That isn't going to tell us that these people are 'dysfunctional' compared with 'different' however. Why hardware 'problem' compared with 'difference'?

> what is the difference between the two when our brains only execute the one set of (complex) algorithms?

?
Not sure what you mean there. Computers have software and hardware. Programs and chips. Brains seem to have software and hardware too. Think Chomsky's superrules of grammer or Millers 'magical number 7' and stuff like that. They aren't telling us about the hardware - are they? The level of software is the level of cognitive psychology. The mind is an information processor. Think cognitive models of language or percepual processing. The level of hardware is the level of neurology. The brain is made of neurones etc. One can talk about problems with the software (problems with mental rotation exercises or problems with microsoft word) without talking about the hardware at all. One can have a software problem without having a hardware problem.

Is schizophrenia a software problem? Not sure. Social problem... I keep thinking about niche construction to tell you the truth. Certain diseases (pathogens) became prevalent during the industrial revolution because you had so many people cluttered together living in their own filth. Physical problems became prevalent. And... Maybe mental problems did too. Maybe there wasn't a physical pathogen prevalent... But maybe there was a meme... An ideal that some people struggled with...

Perhaps. Pure speculation, of course.
But lets face it the genetic and / or neurological explanations aren't doing so well.
 
The level of hardware is the level of neurology. The brain is made of neurones etc. One can talk about problems with the software (problems with mental rotation exercises or problems with microsoft word) without talking about the hardware at all. One can have a software problem without having a hardware problem.

Hey, the problem that I have with this is that there is no real hardware/software dichotomy. There is no change in software without a corresponding change in hardware... so this software supervenes on hardware.

I think that that means every token of "pathological behavior" that you want to term a "software problem" corresponds to a functional state of brain "hardware", and these two things can be mapped back and forth.

Are you trying to say that this mapping might not be one-to-one? That might be true, I'm not sure about that... But it seems like every software problem is a hardware problem by definition.

Of course some problems are better adressed at this higher level of "software", like personality disorders, for instance. That's just because at the neural level they're probably just too hard to understand. That's sort of like the way we use classical mechanics to approximate quantum mechanics for large systems like proteins.

I just don't know if there is a principled difference between hardware and software, more like a difference in perspective.
 
> Are you trying to say that this mapping might not be one-to-one? That might be true, I'm not sure about that... But it seems like every software problem is a hardware problem by definition.

We need a 'type' and a 'token' distinction. Tokens are particulars (individual instances) and types are collections of tokens (individual instances) that are of the same kind or something like that.

E.g.,
my particular belief that I consciously experience right now 'the sun is hot' (token)
my particular belief that I consciously experience tomorrow 'the sun is hot' (token)

Both tokens of the same type of belief ('the sun is hot') and of course I can have a token and you can have a token and the next person can have a token... We can't share the same token belief but we can share the same belief in virtue of having different tokens of the same type.

No change in belief without change in underlying neurology - I grant you that. Each individual token belief might be able to be identified with a token neural state (though that is very controversial). There doesn't seem to be a type of brain state that is invarient across different people and invarient in the same person over time that is going to be tokened every time there is a particular conscious belief 'the sun is hot'. (Neural plasticity goes against it)

So yeah there is multiple realizability. What neural state realizes (supports) the conscious belief 'the sun is hot' varies both across individuals and within the same individual over time. There is no neurological type 'conscious belief that the sun is hot'. Sometimes we can get robust generalisations (and predictive leverage) at higher levels that can't be captured at lower levels of analysis. Precisely because of multiple realizability.

Consider 'money' (a kind of stuff in the special science of economics). Then consider Fisher's law (something about supply and demand). Is 'money' type identical to some physical kind? Money can be made of plastic or paper or wood or shells or... There is no finite listing of physical kinds that exhaustively capture 'money' and of course not all plastic or paper or wood or shells are tokens of money. There is no type-type identity between 'money' and any physical type of stuff. Though it is of course true that every token instance of money is instantiated by (realized by) some physical token.

Fishers law is true of money - but it isn't true of any physical kind of stuff. Fishers law isn't a law about plastic or paper or shells... It is a law about money. This isn't just an epistemic problem where learning more about physics will mean that we can reduce Fishers law to the laws of physics either. There seems to be a principled reason why Fishers law won't be reducible to physics - precisely because of multiple realizability.

Fishers law gives us information about the world that physics would be missing (if we were only allowed to talk in terms of physical properties and relations and laws etc). I mean... Consider 'paper' - that isn't going to feature in the final subatomic physics either, most probably. In fact... Recovering ordinary everyday objects from the final subatomic physics is going to be problematic. Multiple realizability means that reductions of the special sciences (such as cognitive psychology) to 'lower level sciences' (such as neurology or subatomic physics) isn't going to work...

> I just don't know if there is a principled difference between hardware and software, more like a difference in perspective.

In the case of computers or brains or both?
How about a principled difference between paper and money?
 
I hope I'm helping and not making things even more confused...

The idea is that money is not type identical to any physical kind of stuff.

(I'm ignoring complications with money about electronic funds and crap like that. Just thinking of good old fashioned exchange of cash. I'm also ignoring complications with 'physical kind' and its relation to fundamental physical kinds like quarks and wave functions. Just treating 'physical kind' as ordinary everyday physical kinds).

Money is not type identical to paper. That is because not all paper is money and not all money is paper.

There are generalisations about money that are true of it (e.g., Fishers law) that are not true of whatever happens to constitute it (e.g., paper). And, of course, there are generalisations about paper that are not true of money.

People like the Churchland's think that because belief (or types of belief) isn't type-type identical to any neurological type that we should eliminate talk of belief! That would be as absurd as eliminating economics because money isn't type-type identical to any physical type, however.

There is much good work that is being done in cognitive psychology looking at cognitive processes such as face recognition, past tensing verbs etc where the generalizations that are found are not reducible to generalizations about kinds of neurological states. So... I really don't think that we have any reason to expect depression or schizophrenia or whatever to be the result of any neurological (or genetic) type of state. They could turn out to be cognitive kinds... Or social kinds...
 
No change in belief without change in underlying neurology - I grant you that. But do you really think there will be a type of brain state (invarient across different people and invarient in the same person over time) that is going to be tokened every time there is a particular conscious belief 'the sun is hot'?

Hi Toby, no I don't think that there will be an invariant brain state across different people, or even the same person as they think a token of "the sun is hot". But I also don't think that that is what's required. Well, that one thought is too fine-grained... What I mean to say is that stereotyped changes in the brain lead to stereotyped changes in behavior. We notice stereotyped changes in behavior and call them mental diseases.

So schizophrenia is one of these stereotyped syndromes, it has a certain age of onset, its accompanied by changes in the physical features of the brain, and it stereotypically responds to certain classes of drugs. We don't know what causes it, but its definitely some problem in the brain...

Well, a 48% chance of having schizophrenia if your identical twin has it is a lot higher than the 1% chance otherwise. Well it seems like this statistic isn't the most helpful... It has something to do with gene expression, right? For whatever reason the gene isn't turned on in both of them. Maybe some forms of schizophrenia affect genes that are turned on more easilly, and the twin concordance rate for that subset is 100%. Well since we don't know which types of schizophrenia there are, we can't know who belongs in which group and we have to compare averages across them all. Well I'm not sure what that tells us about a group of diseases masquerading under one name.

Yeah, there is multiple realizability. Sometimes you get robust generalisations at higher levels. I mean... If you think that cognitive psychology can/should be reduced to neurology then why stop there? Why not try and reduce cognitive psychology (and of course neurology) to sub atomic physics? Because there are robust generalisations to be had at higher levels that can't be captured at lower levels, thats why.

That's true, but I don't see how it really helps your cause. We stop at the biological level for schizophrenia because that's the level that we can most effectively help the patient. We hope to do the same thing for personality disorders, but they're probably far too complex and heterogenous. In any case, our goal should be to focus on the level that's most useful in a pragmatic sense. That doesn't mean that we have to pretend that there is some disconnect between explanatory levels. In terms of usefulness, too, chemistry is a lot more comfortable a level to be at than psychology...

I think it is more a matter of principle. Try casting Fishers Law (economics) in terms of physics. Impossible in principle because of multiple realizability, yeah. The problem is that 'money' is multiply realizable and that you can't give a complete list of all the different physical things that can count as money.

Well money is defined functionally. You can define fisher's law in some abstract mathematical language, and then you can find physical systems that implement that functional system... Of course every token of money supervenes on some token conglomeration of physical particles. By printing more of those conglomerations we can affect the economy, and whatever fisher's law is, well it will be affected too...

In any case, I don't see why you can't describe money in terms of physics anyway. There's only been a finite amount of money, so just describe it all and you're done. Well that's not a very concise definition, but it doesn't raise any conceptual problems.

So I'm wondering, what do you take to be the significance of this hardware/software distinction that you make? That psychiatric diseases can't, as a matter of principle, be successfully treated at the chemical level? That would be a pretty big claim.
 
People like the Churchland's think that because belief (or types of belief) isn't type-type identical to any neurological type that we should eliminate talk of belief! That would be as absurd as eliminating economics because money isn't type-type identical to any physical type, however.

Hey Toby, well I'm not a fan of the churchlands, if you thought you were talking to one of those. I read somewhere that they were trying to raise their children without using any "folk psychological" terms. Well, I'm not trying to eliminate psychology in favor of neuroscience. Well I'm just trying to say that there is something wrong with the brains of schizophrenics on the chemical level, and it should be treated on the chemical level, and ideas about social causes and whatever else is going to be a dead end. Now, whether or not that is going to be the case with personality disorders is another thing, and I tend to think not. I think there are probably no meaningful generalizations to be made about the brains of people with low self-esteem... Of course that doesn't mean that some of their symptoms can't be relieved with some antidepressant, but I don't think we're going to be finding the "low self-esteem gene". I'm pretty sure that some incredibly complex system of genes confers propensity for low self-esteem but... probably not the best research model to go on.

There is much good work that is being done in cognitive psychology looking at cognitive processes such as face recognition, past tensing verbs etc where the generalizations that are found are not reducible to generalizations about kinds of neurological states. So... I really don't think that we have any reason to expect depression or schizophrenia or whatever to be the result of any neurological (or genetic) type of state. They could turn out to be cognitive kinds... Or social kinds...

Well, all of this could also mean that we don't know enough about neural states too. But obviously schizophrenia is at least part genetic... right?
 
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I don't think that we have found the type of neurological state that causes schizophrenia. Enlarged ventricles? How many people with schizophrenia have those? (About 7 or 14% I think) and about the same rates of people with Bi-polar and then there are all the people who don't have symptoms of mental illness at all even though they have enlarged ventricles. And then there is the point that Nazi scientists dissected many a schizophrenic brain and failed to find enlarged ventricles (which is such a gross abnormality so as to have been readily observable to them given the state of their technology) which has led some to conclude that enlarged ventricles might actually be caused by psychiatric drugs...

So... It is controversial whether there is any type of neurological state that will be identified with schizophrenia. Of course one might say that that is because schizophrenia isn't a natural kind, and once we have the kinds of mental disorderes figured out then we will find that they are type-type identical with some neurological state. I honestly... Don't think that that will be the case, however. I think that mental disorders... Are multiply realized.

What reason do we have to believe that schizophrenia is caused by a neurological malfunction? The fact that medications that decrease dopamine help them with their symptoms? If you give me anti-psychotics to decrease my dopamine you will reduce my anxiety / agitation similarly to reducing the anxiety / agitation of people with schizophrenia. Does this show that I have too much dopamine? How much is too much? When you have behavioural symptoms of schziophrenia?

> What I mean to say is that stereotyped changes in the brain lead to stereotyped changes in behavior. We notice stereotyped changes in behavior and call them mental diseases.

There are many other stereotyped changes in behaviour. Consider people coming to believe in God or coming to vote democrat. Do you think that those are similarly caused by stereotyped changes in the brain?

> So schizophrenia is one of these stereotyped syndromes, it has a certain age of onset, its accompanied by changes in the physical features of the brain, and it stereotypically responds to certain classes of drugs. We don't know what causes it, but its definitely some problem in the brain...

If we could medicate / treat people by altering their neurology such that they no longer believed in god (by treating temporal lobe dysfunction, for example) or medicate / treat people by altering their neurology such that they no longer voted democrat then would that show belief in God and voting democrat to be mental disorders that are best treated neurologically?

> For whatever reason the gene isn't turned on in both of them.

But remember that only about 7% of people with schizophrenia have that three gene locus. What if we found that the 14% of people without schizophrenia who had that three gene locus were particularly creative people? Then should we still try genetic intervention because they were 'at risk' of schizophrenia? What if we found that people with schizophrenic symptoms in other cultures were revered as prophets or seers or religious leaders? Should we move on in and treat them for their 'dysfunction'? Wouldn't that be imposition of our values more than anything else? Why shouldn't we look at social interventions (treating the society that doesn't accept people with schizophrenic symptoms) rather than focusing on neurological interventions on the individual (calling the person malfunctional and sedating them)?

> We stop at the biological level for schizophrenia because that's the level that we can most effectively help the patient.

Two thirds of people in developing nations recover from schizophrenia. One third of people in developed western nations recover from schizophrenia. (Yes they are matched for severity). That was found across 3 WHO studies. People in developing nations have less access to psychiatrists and less access to medications. They have better social supports than people in developed nations. They have less stigma than people in developed nations. Cognitive behaviour therapy has been found to be effective (sort of) for treating people with delusions. All this is to say that it is very controversial indeed that neurological intervention is more effective than social and / or cognitive intervention.

> Well money is defined functionally.

Yeah. And the operationalized behavioural symptoms for mental disorders are too.

> You can define fisher's law in some abstract mathematical language, and then you can find physical systems that implement that functional system...

Yes. And those systems will have nothing in common on the physical level. Like how ecology can describe stable ecosystems mathematically that are multiply realized in different particular ecosystems that have different particular species in them.

> Of course every token of money supervenes on some token conglomeration of physical particles.

Yes. And of course ecosystems are comprised of particular species and particular predator-prey interactions etc.

> By printing more of those conglomerations we can affect the economy, and whatever fisher's law is, well it will be affected too...

Fishers law is a law about supply and demand. Something about how much you can increase the price of goods when there are certain amounts of goods on the market and when there is a certain demand for those goods. Something about how if demand is high and supply is low then price can be high. If supply is high and demand is low then price needs to be low. It helps people figure out how to maximise profits (you want high prices and minimal production ideally - as a producer).

> I don't see why you can't describe money in terms of physics anyway. There's only been a finite amount of money, so just describe it all and you're done. Well that's not a very concise definition, but it doesn't raise any conceptual problems.

Fishers law (or laws about the stability of ecosystems) don't apply just to every past (finite) instance of money. They apply to all future instances of money as well. They also apply to all possible instances of money (that never actually exist in our world. That is the problem. 'Money' is open. The term refers to all past present future and possible instances. That is something that can't be captured at a lower level of analysis. 'Paper' is open too. The term refers to all past present future and possible instances. That is also something that cant' be captured at a lower level of analysis. The set of particulars referred to by 'Money' and the set of particulars referred to by 'Paper' will be overlapping to be sure. But take a particular (that is in the overlapping part of the set) and it will be subject to different laws depending on whether we consider the particular qua 'money' or whether we consider the particular qua 'paper'. Consider 'It is possible that this paper wasn't money' (TRUE). Consider 'It is possible that this paper wasn't paper' (FALSE). This shows you that the identity between 'paper' and 'money' is false. Even... When it comes to particular (token) instances... What we have... Is two distinct token (particular) objects (token of paper, token of money) that happen to overlap spatiotemporally. You can destroy the money without destroying the paper. Though there is an a-symetric relation to be sure as you can't destroy the paper without destroying the money).

> So I'm wondering, what do you take to be the significance of this hardware/software distinction that you make?

The significance is... That it is still an open question whether mental disorders will turn out to be type-type identical to either 1) genetic disorders. 2) neurological disorders. 3) cognitive disorders. 4) social disorders. They might just be... Functionally defined behavioural disorders that are multiply realized at all other levels. Of course we might choose to redefine our current nosology such that the behavioural kinds come into line with types of 1) genetic and / or 2) neurological and / or 3) cognitive and / or 4) social disorders. But the trouble is that there don't seem to be any genetic / neurological / cognitive / social kinds in the relevant vicinity... Tis hard to be sure...
 
And then there is the point that Nazi scientists dissected many a schizophrenic brain and failed to find enlarged ventricles (which is such a gross abnormality so as to have been readily observable to them given the state of their technology) which has led some to conclude that enlarged ventricles might actually be caused by psychiatric drugs...

Hey, enlarged ventricles have been found in neuroleptic naive brains as well. I'll give you a reference as soon as I can find it in my apartment.

So... It is controversial whether there is any type of neurological state that will be identified with schizophrenia. Of course one might say that that is because schizophrenia isn't a natural kind, and once we have the kinds of mental disorderes figured out then we will find that they are type-type identical with some neurological state.

Well my position is that it's because schizophrenia isn't a natural kind. I don't know anything about us finding that schizophrenia is type-type identical to a neurological state... It will still be realizable through different neurological states. What I think is that we'll find a gene or some other pathologic mechanism that causes some neurological state, whatever it is, that causes schizophrenia. The state itself, whatever a neural state really is, will be unknown forever, probably...

What reason do we have to believe that schizophrenia is caused by a neurological malfunction? The fact that medications that decrease dopamine help them with their symptoms? If you give me anti-psychotics to decrease my dopamine you will reduce my anxiety / agitation similarly to reducing the anxiety / agitation of people with schizophrenia. Does this show that I have too much dopamine? How much is too much? When you have behavioural symptoms of schziophrenia?

Hey, well there's a big difference between anxiety and psychosis. So too much dopamine leads to psychotic symptoms. We know that because when you give someone a bunch of L-Dopa they become psychotic, and when you inhibit dopamine psychotic people get better. That's pretty good evidence.

There are many other stereotyped changes in behaviour. Consider people coming to believe in God or coming to vote democrat. Do you think that those are similarly caused by stereotyped changes in the brain?

You keep using very specific examples. I don't believe that we will ever find the exact condition in the brain that leads to psychotic delusions that it's the FBI, rather than the CIA that's spying on them. Or the difference between a belief in Jesus or Muhammad in the brain. Psychosis is a very basic condition, not something really complex like voting democrat... Compare psychosis to something like a dementia instead, that's a better comparison than voting democrat.

If we could medicate / treat people by altering their neurology such that they no longer believed in god (by treating temporal lobe dysfunction, for example) or medicate / treat people by altering their neurology such that they no longer voted democrat then would that show belief in God and voting democrat to be mental disorders that are best treated neurologically?

Hey, this is an interesting question, but I don't think it's that relevant. This seems more like a question about the normative nature of all disease. Well disease is a partially normative term, because disease means "bad". There is not good disease, because then it wouldn't be a disease.

Two thirds of people in developing nations recover from schizophrenia. One third of people in developed western nations recover from schizophrenia. (Yes they are matched for severity). That was found across 3 WHO studies. People in developing nations have less access to psychiatrists and less access to medications. They have better social supports than people in developed nations. They have less stigma than people in developed nations. Cognitive behaviour therapy has been found to be effective (sort of) for treating people with delusions. All this is to say that it is very controversial indeed that neurological intervention is more effective than social and / or cognitive intervention.

Have you ever lived in a developing country? I used to live in a country called Yemen, well it's right below saudi arabia. I definitely find this study suspect because there is far greater social stigma against schizophrenics there than there is here. In fact, schizophrenics are put in chains and left outside on the streets... In any case, what was the definition of recovery? Was it recovery based upon the opinion of a physician from that country, or globe-trotting control physicians?

Also, I'm convinced that a strong social support network is critical in schizophrenia recovery. If there is a place where schizophrenics have a better social support network, then they probably recovery better there. But we also know that scizophrenics who have the level of social support that we have here recover much much better with antipsychotic medication.

Have you known many schizophrenics? I've known many, that's where my interest in the disease comes from. When they go off their medication they go completely insane. That's a trial holding social support network constant... Also, where did you read that psychotherapy alone is effective in treating schizophrenia? How long did this therapy take to have an effect? It doesn't seem like an effective treatment strategy to me.
 
...Hey, well there's a big difference between anxiety and psychosis. So too much dopamine leads to psychotic symptoms. We know that because when you give someone a bunch of L-Dopa they become psychotic, and when you inhibit dopamine psychotic people get better. That's pretty good evidence....
You keep using very specific examples. I don't believe that we will ever find the exact condition in the brain that leads to psychotic delusions that it's the FBI, rather than the CIA that's spying on them. Or the difference between a belief in Jesus or Muhammad in the brain. Psychosis is a very basic condition, not something really complex like voting democrat... Compare psychosis to something like a dementia instead, that's a better comparison than voting democrat.
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I'll resist making parallels between dementia and psychosis, Democrats and Republicans...for today at least...:D

Anyway, I can only take so many "dopamine causes psychosis" statements without needing to pop a word in.

I'd really recommend that you go to your local medical library and borrow this book, The Neuropathology of Schizophrenia, for a reasonably readable tour of how complicated this entity is. As Kraeplin pointed out to us, there are many aspects that are more like dementia than psychosis in this disease--and they come from documented structural and circuit level findings that are much more subtle than enlarged ventricles and too much dopamine.

I applaud anyone who wants to delve into the basic science of this condition--I tried it for awhile and couldn't keep up. I promise you, your work will not be finished in your lifetime!
 
I'll resist making parallels between dementia and psychosis, Democrats and Republicans...for today at least...:D

Anyway, I can only take so many "dopamine causes psychosis" statements without needing to pop a word in.

I'd really recommend that you go to your local medical library and borrow this book, The Neuropathology of Schizophrenia, for a reasonably readable tour of how complicated this entity is. As Kraeplin pointed out to us, there are many aspects that are more like dementia than psychosis in this disease--and they come from documented structural and circuit level findings that are much more subtle than enlarged ventricles and too much dopamine.

I applaud anyone who wants to delve into the basic science of this condition--I tried it for awhile and couldn't keep up. I promise you, your work will not be finished in your lifetime!

Hey OPD, I actually own that book. My girlfriend got it for me for my birthday. Well, I suppose that let's you know how lame I am.

I've been doing these MD/PhD interviews lately, it's pretty crappy. When I mention to the other applicants that I'm interested in schizophrenia I always get these really shocked reactions, like it's not worthy of attention... even from other Neuroscience applicants. One girl said, "Oh, you're interested in psychological stuff?". Well they all want to work on something lame, like stroke. As far as I can tell, schizophrenia is the most interesting disorder in the neuroscience cornucopia. Why go to the trouble of studying the brain if all you're interested in is the blood vessels in there? Blood vessels are not what make brains interesting.

Well, I'm really being a bit facetious here. Stroke is cool too, because its so practical... it just doesn't have that mysterious quality that psychiatric diseases have.
 
Hey OPD, I actually own that book. My girlfriend got it for me for my birthday. Well, I suppose that let's you know how lame I am.

I've been doing these MD/PhD interviews lately, it's pretty crappy. When I mention to the other applicants that I'm interested in schizophrenia I always get these really shocked reactions, like it's not worthy of attention... even from other Neuroscience applicants. One girl said, "Oh, you're interested in psychological stuff?". Well they all want to work on something lame, like stroke. As far as I can tell, schizophrenia is the most interesting disorder in the neuroscience cornucopia. Why go to the trouble of studying the brain if all your interested in is the blood vessels in there? Blood vessels are not what make brains interesting. ...

You are a man after my own heart.
(And your girlfriend is pretty cool, too, to be giving you a birthday present that geeky! :love:)
 
So your thought is that 'psychosis' might be a natural kind (read neurological or genetic but not both) whereas 'schzophrenia' might not be? I think that 'psychosis' is a better candidate for natural kindhood than schizophrenia, but I'm still not sure that it will turn out to be a natural kind (though I do think it will have much much much much much better prospects).

> I don't think it's that relevant. This seems more like a question about the normative nature of all disease. Well disease is a partially normative term, because disease means "bad". There is not good disease, because then it wouldn't be a disease.

So people who we might be tempted to think of as psychotic who are revered as prophets or holy leaders or religious seers don't really have psychosis (because psychosis is a disease and disease means "bad")?

> I used to live in a country called Yemen, well it's right below saudi arabia.

I don't think Yemen was a country that was included in the WHO study. I'm sure that some developing nations treat people with psychosis rather poorly, but it is also the case that some developing nations revere people with psychosis.

> In any case, what was the definition of recovery? Was it recovery based upon the opinion of a physician from that country, or globe-trotting control physicians?

I don't know. I think 'no longer meets criteria for schizophrenia'. Since the patients in the study were said to be 'matched for severity' I'm assuming they were 'matched for recovery criteria' also. I could, of course, be wrong.

> But we also know that scizophrenics who have the level of social support that we have here recover much much better with antipsychotic medication.

I'm not sure that we do know that...

> Have you known many schizophrenics?

Yes.

> When they go off their medication they go completely insane.

That is called 'rebound syndrome' or 'withdrawal syndrome'. Takes the brain a while to adjust to the change (similarly to how it takes your brain a while to adjust to starting medications it takes your brain a while to adjust to stopping medications).

> Also, where did you read that psychotherapy alone is effective in treating schizophrenia?

http://www.amazon.com/Cognitive-Delusions-Paranoia-Clinical-Psychology/dp/0471961736
 
> As Kraeplin pointed out to us, there are many aspects that are more like dementia than psychosis in this disease--and they come from documented structural and circuit level findings that are much more subtle than enlarged ventricles and too much dopamine.

How invarient are they? There are problems with invariance, of course... We have a pretty good understanding of the mechanisms involved in the generation of the action potential, yet it is still the case that when those mechanisms do what they are supposed to do to cause an action potential they fail to cause one more often than not.

How much invariance does there need to be before we have discovered the relevant causal mechanisms? Dunno... I guess the best candidate we have (the candidate with the most invariance) gets to be 'the cause' until a better candidate comes along...

I guess I just think that 'the causes' of mental disorders are going to be some very complex combination of genetic, neurological, cognitive, and social causal mechanisms. I don't think that the syndromes that appear in the DSM are likely to map on (with little invariance) to genetic, neurological, cognitive, or social types.

And... I'm not even sure how much hope there is for particular symptoms (like psychosis) either...

More hope, though. More hope...
 
>
I guess I just think that 'the causes' of mental disorders are going to be some very complex combination of genetic, neurological, cognitive, and social causal mechanisms. I don't think that the syndromes that appear in the DSM are likely to map on (with little invariance) to genetic, neurological, cognitive, or social types.

And... I'm not even sure how much hope there is for particular symptoms (like psychosis) either...

More hope, though. More hope...

There are very few conditions in medicine that have single causes. Most have multiple causes. Even something as "biological" as HTN, Stroke or MI have multiple causes. For the sake of arguement- which seems to be going on above, infectious diseases can have multiple causes too. For a virus to enter our system, there has to be something social happening like having unprotected sex, being near a person who sneezes etc etc. If we all washed our hands and cleaned up properly, ther would not be so many bacterial and parasitic diseases. So definitely, there is a social or environmental aspect to most illnesses. You can not always change people's social life or environment. While we do focus a lot on the preventive aspects of illness in modern medicine but when this fails and their biology is disturbed as a result, it makes more sense to focus on biology, rather than trying to "talk people out of their delusions" or what have you.
 
> While we do focus a lot on the preventive aspects of illness in modern medicine but when this fails and their biology is disturbed as a result, it makes more sense to focus on biology, rather than trying to "talk people out of their delusions" or what have you.

I don't really get why people here are so resistent to the idea that... Delusions can pass. Someone might become psychotic but that if they are looked after for a bit and kept out of harms way their deluisonal awareness / beliefs can pass. Kind of like how depression typically lifts all by itself too. Give it a couple months and the majority of people (with MDE) get better all by themselves. Helped along with some good social supports, of course, but people are pretty resilient really.

In some societies people with delusions are revered as holy leaders. Prophets. Seers.

In our society people with delusions are feared and we want to change them and maintain that they are 'broken' or 'defective' (in order to justify our changing them.

How is delusion different from sluggish schizophrenia? Homosexuality?

How do we decide whether the person should change (whether or not they want to)

Compared with society becoming more tolerant (we typically think that we should tolerate political dissent and homosexuality)
 
In some societies people with delusions are revered as holy leaders. Prophets. Seers.

Hey Toby, once again this doesn't seem relevant. What if there was a society that worshipped diabetics because they produced "honey water". Does that have any meaning whatsoever in the treatment of diabetes?

In our society people with delusions are feared and we want to change them and maintain that they are 'broken' or 'defective' (in order to justify our changing them.

People with delusions are broken. It's better to not have delusions than it is to have them, that's why we treat them medically. Is saying that somehow un-PC now? I suppose it's all the same to you whether you develop delusions or not, but if I ever do I want to be treated as soon as possible.

How is delusion different from sluggish schizophrenia? Homosexuality?

I think you may be losing sight of the practical purpose of medicine. How would you say that having freckles is different from having AIDS? What about in a society where people with freckles were immediately stoned to death? Well these don't seem like helpful questions... Probably better to focus on treating those things that are like diabetes and delusions, and leaving freckles and gayness alone, without asking too many questions about it.
 
>
In some societies people with delusions are revered as holy leaders. Prophets. Seers.
In our society people with delusions are feared and we want to change them and maintain that they are 'broken' or 'defective' (in order to justify our changing them.

This is exactly why delusions are "defective". You can sit here and easily talk about other societies, but do you have any idea the kind of problems this reverence brings in those societies? I am sure you don't. Even in those societies, such loony behavior is part of the fringe and not the mainstream.
 
This is exactly why delusions are "defective". You can sit here and easily talk about other societies, but do you have any idea the kind of problems this reverence brings in those societies? I am sure you don't. Even in those societies, such loony behavior is part of the fringe and not the mainstream.

That's not true at all. Psychosis-like states of consciousness are integral foundations for leadership in religious rituals according to a vast literature of hunter-gatherer societies, religious rituals themselves being the cornerstone of normal group social life. Hunter-gatherer societies, by the way, are where we all come from.

It's a fact that what is considered schizophrenia today is constructed in conjunction with contemporary social values. A schizophrenic is considered "recovered" when he is functional: employed, with a socially acceptable belief system, not socially disruptive, and so on.

An interesting point is that many schizophrenic delusions are not epistemically falsifiable but socially deviant.

I also think that the problem of overdiagnosis can only be addressed by understanding the social context of psychiatry. That is to say, disruptiveness is the first criterion under which someone comes under the jurisdiction of the psychiatric hospital, and consequently, the application of diagnostic categories is executed. Sometimes this application can be cursory, and patients can be misdiagnosed according to the needs of their social network: it may be more convenient to prescribe antipsychotics to disruptive people than to address their concerns, particularly if they are in a low position in their respective local social hierarchies.

Certainly I don't advocate a purely social constructionist view of mental illness; I'm a firm believer in biology and may pursue a neuroscience research career. But biology only exists within a context of social interaction.
 
That's not true at all. Psychosis-like states of consciousness are integral foundations for leadership in religious rituals according to a vast literature of hunter-gatherer societies, religious rituals themselves being the cornerstone of normal group social life. Hunter-gatherer societies, by the way, are where we all come from.

Hi, Once again I'm really not sure what relevance this has to the underlying pathology of schizophrenia. Did you know that an eight-limbed girl was born in India a few years ago? Her village worshipped her as the incarnation of some god. Well she recently had a surgery to correct the problem. Does that mean that having eight limbs is not pathological? It probably means nothing that's relevant to the surgeons...

It's a fact that what is considered schizophrenia today is constructed in conjunction with contemporary social values. A schizophrenic is considered "recovered" when he is functional: employed, with a socially acceptable belief system, not socially disruptive, and so on.

Yeah, that is a fact... well how is that different than any other disease?

An interesting point is that many schizophrenic delusions are not epistemically falsifiable but socially deviant.

Well, it doesn't matter whether the delusions are falsifiable or not... A delusion about demonic possession will not be falsifiable. A delusion about alien implants is falsifiable. This doesn't lead to any dichotomy within the pathology of schizophrenia itself. The patient takes their delusion to be true regardless of empirical evidence.

I also think that the problem of overdiagnosis can only be addressed by understanding the social context of psychiatry. That is to say, disruptiveness is the first criterion under which someone comes under the jurisdiction of the psychiatric hospital, and consequently, the application of diagnostic categories is executed. Sometimes this application can be cursory, and patients can be misdiagnosed according to the needs of their social network: it may be more convenient to prescribe antipsychotics to disruptive people than to address their concerns, particularly if they are in a low position in their respective local social hierarchies.

Hey, the fact that misdiagnosis occurs is not unique to psychiatry. The only difference between psychiatry and the rest of medicine in this context is involuntary treatment... but this is a social policy, not a fact about the diseases themselves.

Certainly I don't advocate a purely social constructionist view of mental illness; I'm a firm believer in biology and may pursue a neuroscience research career. But biology only exists within a context of social interaction.

Well I'm not sure about this. You can be schizophrenic on a deserted island too... It would be a pretty life threatening condition if your thoughts are so disorded that you can't forage for food, or whatever.
 
It's a fact that what is considered schizophrenia today is constructed in conjunction with contemporary social values. A schizophrenic is considered "recovered" when he is functional: employed, with a socially acceptable belief system, not socially disruptive, and so on.

An interesting point is that many schizophrenic delusions are not epistemically falsifiable but socially deviant.

I also think that the problem of overdiagnosis can only be addressed by understanding the social context of psychiatry. That is to say, disruptiveness is the first criterion under which someone comes under the jurisdiction of the psychiatric hospital, and consequently, the application of diagnostic categories is executed. Sometimes this application can be cursory, and patients can be misdiagnosed according to the needs of their social network: it may be more convenient to prescribe antipsychotics to disruptive people than to address their concerns, particularly if they are in a low position in their respective local social hierarchies.

Certainly I don't advocate a purely social constructionist view of mental illness; I'm a firm believer in biology and may pursue a neuroscience research career. But biology only exists within a context of social interaction.

At one time, even epilepsy was thought to be caused by spirits. Seizures can be triggered by environmental factors too-see below. So do you want to suggest the same things for epilepsy? If you do, I can still understand where you are coming from. If you don't, I would say that this way of thinking is exactly why the illnesses like schizophrenia are stigmatized. The society calls them crazy, seers, prophets or whatever, when what is really going on is real neurological changes. These changes could be related to network, structure, function or whatever.

So think twice before embarking on a Neuroscience career, because what is going on in Neuroscience is miles away from the viewpoint you are holding.

Seizures in photosensitive people may be triggered by exposure to television screens due to the flicker or rolling images, to computer monitors, to certain video games or TV broadcasts containing rapid flashes or alternating patterns of different colors, and to intense strobe lights like visual fire alarms. People have wondered whether flashing lights on the outside top of buses or emergency vehicles may trigger seizures in people with photosensitive epilepsy.




Originally Posted by synth
That's not true at all. Psychosis-like states of consciousness are integral foundations for leadership in religious rituals according to a vast literature of hunter-gatherer societies, religious rituals themselves being the cornerstone of normal group social life. Hunter-gatherer societies, by the way, are where we all come from.


Do you want us to go back to those times just because schizophrenia has certain behavioral manifestations, while you conveniently ignore the physical manifestations in cognition and affect. I am not even sure if what we call behavioral manifestations today will be seen as such tomorrow.

See below for some more enlightenment-

People have known about epilepsy for thousands of years but have not understood it until recently. The ancient Babylonians wrote about the symptoms and causes of epilepsy 3000 years ago. They thought that seizures were caused by demons attacking the person. Different spirits were thought to cause the different kinds of seizures.

Ancient Greeks thought you got epilepsy by offending the moon goddess Selene. One cure was eating mistletoe that was picked without using a sickle or blade during the time the moon is smallest in the sky. The mistletoe could not touch the ground, because then it would not be effective against the "falling sickness", because it had fallen itself. In 400 BC, Hippocrates, the Father of Medicine, wrote a book saying that people do not get epilepsy from the gods, because that would be thinking bad of the gods. His cure for epilepsy was medicine and diet based on his own unscientific theories of the balance between hot and cold. The religious cure of the time was to sleep in the temple overnight and hope that the god Asclepius would appear in a dream and cure you or tell you how to get cured.

Ancient Romans beleived that epilepsy came from demons, and was contagious by touching or being breathed on by a person with epilepsy. If this would occur, people would spit to get rid of the demon. Since they thought epilepsy was contagious, people with epilepsy would have to live alone.

In Europe in the Middle Ages, epilepsy was called the falling sickness, and people looked to saints and relics for cures. The three wise men and St. Valentine were particularly important patrons of people with epilepsy. If you had epilepsy you could a special blessed ring that would help control your seizures. This idea was still around in colonial America when George Washington's daughter Patsy had seizures and was given an iron ring by her doctor.

During the Renaissance, people started to read ancient writings again, and the ideas of long ago came back into fashion. Some people thought that people with epilepsy were prophets, because they could see the past, present, and future when they were unconscious during a seizure. People with epilepsy were thought to be very smart because some very great people in the Roman empire had epilepsy, including Julius Cesar and Petrarch. Epilepsy was still believed to be a terrible disease by the common people.

During the Enlightenment, from the late 1600's on, belief that demons caused epilepsy faded. People thought that epilepsy was contagious because of some famous cases where orphans all started acting like they were having seizures. Because epilepsy was thought to be contagious, people with the disorder were locked up in mental hospitals. They were kept seperate from the mentally ill, so the insane would not get epilepsy!
 
I would say that this way of thinking is exactly why the illnesses like schizophrenia are stigmatized. The society calls them crazy, seers, prophets or whatever, when what is really going on is real neurological changes. These changes could be related to network, structure, function or whatever.

Hey, great way to put it. :thumbup:
 
Hi, Once again I'm really not sure what relevance this has to the underlying pathology of schizophrenia. Did you know that an eight-limbed girl was born in India a few years ago? Her village worshipped her as the incarnation of some god. Well she recently had a surgery to correct the problem. Does that mean that having eight limbs is not pathological? It probably means nothing that's relevant to the surgeons...

The notion of pathology is value-laden, and it does depend upon social and historical context. Whether eight-limbedness is pathological depends upon the extent to which it deviates from an ideal type, and whether this deviation is considered good or bad. There are many other sorts of deviations, which are fundamentally biological, which we do not consider pathology.

Extreme height would be an example. Being 8 feet tall may be more uncommon than mental illness, and may result from having an extremely active pituitary gland, but does that make it pathological? The answer to this depends upon whether it affects the functioning of the individual as the first criterion, which is fundamentally a social question.

Why is it a social question? Because the notion of functionality depends upon the social structures in which one is expected to function. 8-limbedness is not necessarily dysfunctional if it exists within a context that promotes and idealizes it, because all basic biological needs (and more) will be taken care of in the 8-limbed individual. You might argue that if it leads to early death, then it is pathological.

But other things that lead to early death in this society are not considered pathological. Such as the choice to become a doctor. Should we analyze the genetic constitution that leads us, therefore, to become doctors, to push ourselves and shorten our lifespan?

Moreover, this society may not even take a worldview according to which longevity is valued but rather spiritual salvation and virtue have primacy. How can we apply Western conceptions of health when that society disagrees? One may make the argument that such a society is neurotic, but that is a discussion for another time.

Yeah, that is a fact... well how is that different than any other disease?

It's not different than any other disease, actually, but psychiatry has unique ramifications (though not any more pressing than other areas of biomedicine) for the individual and for the society in which it is constituted. That's why this is an important issue. Psychiatry is a discourse about experience, about suffering, and about our lives, which has concrete social and institutional effects upon large numbers of people. To understand the construction of illness categories, the particular context in which they are constructed, and what social role they serve is therefore important if we are to understand what directions psychiatry can take in the future and how we can make it better.

Well, it doesn't matter whether the delusions are falsifiable or not... A delusion about demonic possession will not be falsifiable. A delusion about alien implants is falsifiable. This doesn't lead to any dichotomy within the pathology of schizophrenia itself. The patient takes their delusion to be true regardless of empirical evidence.

If something isn't falsifiable, it can't be rebutted by empirical evidence.

Hey, the fact that misdiagnosis occurs is not unique to psychiatry. The only difference between psychiatry and the rest of medicine in this context is involuntary treatment... but this is a social policy, not a fact about the diseases themselves.

My contention is that the capacity for misdiagnosis lies within the diagnostic criteria and the role they play in the institution itself. Diagnosis is decontextualized from the social conditions that give rise to it and the experience of the patient; this nebulous notion of schizophrenia (not a homogenous disease state; in fact, nobody knows what it is; academic psychiatrists are the most skeptical) serves certain social functions within society. The theoretical knowledge of schizophrenia, as it is understood according to naive psychiatry (somehow coming about from nothing, or inchoately from "triggers") is so constituted according to the practicable social role that psychiatry fulfills, probably less so than describing some kind of biological reality, and more so categorizing clusters of transient deviances so that they can be instrumentalized against to promote their normalization. Also, I'm not implying that "psychiatry" is naive but that there are different sorts of psychiatrists, those less privy to theoretical issues and those on the cutting edge. Naive psychiatry takes the DSM for granted. This is the biggest mistake.

The DSM is not some champion medical accomplishment, nor should it guide theoretical discussion. If anything, it is peripheral to genuine theoretical discussion, and should mostly be addressed in terms of the ways it can be reformed, rather than as a theoretical groundwork from which we can competently discuss the field. Importantly, if the faults of the DSM are based in the faults of psychiatry, then reform of psychiatry itself should occur and should precede the reform of the DSM.

Well I'm not sure about this. You can be schizophrenic on a deserted island too... It would be a pretty life threatening condition if your thoughts are so disorded that you can't forage for food, or whatever.

A few things here. First, humans are inherently social creatures. Social input is one of the most integrally important elements in how we function, in how we are conscious, and so on. So even being on a deserted island is social; it is the absence of society and has profound ramifications on how this individual will live his life, construct his identity and reality, and so on.

Next, this goes back to what I was saying before, and this argument is two-tiered, so I will address the tiers in order. a) If the schizophrenia category is socially constructed, then someone can't be "schizophrenic," per se, on a deserted island. If schizophrenia is a category produced for a certain social context, then the process of "being schizophrenic," in both the social and the phenomenological senses, is related integrally to the social conditions that are brought to bear on the person by virtue of their diagnosis and is not, then, merely a disease process.

They can, however, have marked deviations from the norm in their brains, which may potentially be measured in the future (this is a claim I am not critical of). Which brings one to the next point. b) Mental illness does not simply come about "by itself" or as a fluke accident of development (though it may in some cases; see below). Cortisol, testosterone, estrogen, dopamine, serotonin, and so on, have roles critical in modulating our social behavior. Studies bear out the contention that they are themselves modulated by social input. How remarkable it must be that we are fine-tuned to our environment.

The argument made, then, is that mental illness is a "spiraling out of control" of these feedback circuits with environment, though I contend that this is not necessarily the case, that life is difficult, can be oppressive, and can cause someone to become transiently dysfunctional (with the correlates in consciousness of distress) or even chronically so. In some cases, however, we must say that there may be inherent developmental abnormalities in some individuals, that feedback systems are inherently disrupted by virtue of deleterious mutation. But the problem is that psychiatry not only lumps together multiple disease processes into unitary categories in which they do not fit, but that it does not even make the theoretical attempt to tease apart inherent problems with development from "personal" problems. The problem is that it makes psychological suffering seem as if it came about from nowhere, from biology alone, from the individual, without account to circumstances; the DSM says very little about circumstance that is meaningful to a human reader. Yes, it is my contention that even psychoses can be induced, in normal people, by profoundly distressing situations, and I have seen this firsthand. But let us also not forget that we are constructing a false dichotomy here, that aberrant development may be amenable to social conditions in certain cases, and that normal development may necessarily result in chronic mental illness by virtue of a person's inherent inability to find their niche.
 
At one time, even epilepsy was thought to be caused by spirits. Seizures can be triggered by environmental factors too-see below. So do you want to suggest the same things for epilepsy? If you do, I can still understand where you are coming from. If you don't, I would say that this way of thinking is exactly why the illnesses like schizophrenia are stigmatized. The society calls them crazy, seers, prophets or whatever, when what is really going on is real neurological changes. These changes could be related to network, structure, function or whatever.

So think twice before embarking on a Neuroscience career, because what is going on in Neuroscience is miles away from the viewpoint you are holding.

Everything we do has a correlate in biology. When I move my hand, neurons are firing to make it so. When I write this post, my groggy brain sputters open sodium channels and occasionally fails to make action potentials as I type. So when you say that epilepsy is neurological, that it's a matter of neuronal firing in the brain, I don't disagree whatsoever. What I disagree with is whether this firing is necessarily pathological, or a disease. I contend that it is only so in a society where status cannot be derived from the epilepsy.

Neuroscience is integrally related to many of these questions that I raise (though not in this post), and will be elucidating the solutions to them in the years to come.

In respect to your tidbit post about ancient civilizations, I am not at all concerned with civilization but pre-civilization, that period of time in which our genetic codes were for the most part produced. Psychosis-like states have been well-documented in a vastly diverse range of pre-agricultural societies' religious ceremony, and in fact, were welcomed and intentionally produced. The question of the role of epilepsy in ancient civilization is an altogether different one.
 
...
In respect to your tidbit post about ancient civilizations, I am not at all concerned with civilization but pre-civilization, that period of time in which our genetic codes were for the most part produced. Psychosis-like states have been well-documented in a vastly diverse range of pre-agricultural societies' religious ceremony, and in fact, were welcomed and intentionally produced. The question of the role of epilepsy in ancient civilization is an altogether different one.

"Psychotic states", especially those intentionally produced and sought after, are NOT EQUAL to schizophrenia, and you really need to stop posting as though they are interchangable. The biology of the condition involves multiple interactions of genetics, development, pre- and post-natal environments. Schizophrenia involves psychosis and/or disorganized thought processes, along with a decline from a previous level of functioning (yes, including social functioning) such that it can be rightly considered a disabling condition. Our academic blathering about pre-agricultural religious ceremonies does nothing to improve the lives of those who suffer (yes, SUFFER) with this disease.
 
So when you say that epilepsy is neurological, that it's a matter of neuronal firing in the brain, I don't disagree whatsoever. What I disagree with is whether this firing is necessarily pathological, or a disease. I contend that it is only so in a society where status cannot be derived from the epilepsy.

Hi, It seems like you're talking about a semantic distinction here... it's not really relevant to the practice of medicine. If you're interested in something like what the term "disease" refers to in different contexts, then maybe you should stick with philosophy and leave medicine alone.

I'm going to go out on a limb here, and any psychiatrist can correct me if I'm wrong, but it is unethical to refuse to treat any schizophrenic patient because recovery would somehow put them in a more difficult social situation. I'm thinking here of a scenario in which a disability check is involved, or something like that, and recovery from schizophrenia would eliminate disability. According to your way of looking at it, schizophrenia would not be pathological in this case because it is the source of social/economic status.

I wonder if you have a very clear idea in your mind as to what schizophrenia is. It is one of the most devastating illnesses that a person can have. The reality of the condition has very little to do with pre-literate shamanism, or whatever it is you're talking about. It is disordered thought, inability to function, profound isolation... just look into the world and see what its effects are, and then say that it's not necessarily bad to be schizophrenic.
 
But the problem is that psychiatry not only lumps together multiple disease processes into unitary categories in which they do not fit, but that it does not even make the theoretical attempt to tease apart inherent problems with development from "personal" problems. The problem is that it makes psychological suffering seem as if it came about from nowhere, from biology alone, from the individual, without account to circumstances; the DSM says very little about circumstance that is meaningful to a human reader.

I'll be concrete here to prevent you from going off on a tangent:p

- No one is suggesting that DSM is perfect.
- Who gave you the idea that DSM does not define circumstances:confused: May be you should re-read DSM.
- If anything, what DSM needs is more biological corelates.
- Psychiatry is evolving and you will see more unitary disease categories in the future, but you ae going to be even more disappointed because these will be biology based.
- Social/environmental factors ARE and WILL remain to be important factors in psychiatric illnesses but biology is going to be the main focus in the years to come.
 
"Psychotic states", especially those intentionally produced and sought after, are NOT EQUAL to schizophrenia, and you really need to stop posting as though they are interchangable. The biology of the condition involves multiple interactions of genetics, development, pre- and post-natal environments. Schizophrenia involves psychosis and/or disorganized thought processes, along with a decline from a previous level of functioning (yes, including social functioning) such that it can be rightly considered a disabling condition. Our academic blathering about pre-agricultural religious ceremonies does nothing to improve the lives of those who suffer (yes, SUFFER) with this disease.

I agree that we must place our theoretical discussions within context, but only theoretical discussion can elucidate what we are dealing with in the first place. It is only upon theoretical discussion that a DSM can hold validity, and it is only upon a DSM that clinical practice becomes meaningful and methodical.

I also think that anthropological studies of how someone, that in this society would be considered prodromal or undergoing the first stages of a schizophrenic psychosis may recover a large degree of functionality in the context of a supportive social environment, could inform us as far as treatment methodology is concerned. Though the question here becomes how pre-shamanic psychoses relate to Western psychoses, if they at all have any correspondence. I don't at all think this is purely academic.
 
Hi, It seems like you're talking about a semantic distinction here... it's not really relevant to the practice of medicine. If you're interested in something like what the term "disease" refers to in different contexts, then maybe you should stick with philosophy and leave medicine alone.

Almost done with the philosophy major (among others); not interested in pursuing it as an exclusive profession, though I think it can complement my medical and academic occupations. I do think this is a far from semantic distinction, and I do think it's very relevant to the practice of medicine.

I'm going to go out on a limb here, and any psychiatrist can correct me if I'm wrong, but it is unethical to refuse to treat any schizophrenic patient because recovery would somehow put them in a more difficult social situation. I'm thinking here of a scenario in which a disability check is involved, or something like that, and recovery from schizophrenia would eliminate disability. According to your way of looking at it, schizophrenia would not be pathological in this case because it is the source of social/economic status.

The thesis here is that pathogenesis and so on may be fundamentally different in a society that valued psychotic or mildly psychotic frames of reference. I do think that the "experience of suffering" (correlated physiologically to stress biomarkers) markedly increases perceived psychopathology and possibly exacerbates its genesis. So it's not just pathology that is defined by a society but the very definition of pathological that can mediate a person's life course. I'm not trying to imply that we should let schizophrenics run about, but that the stigma and social conditions encountered by the schizophrenic and the schizophrenic's low social status may itself precipitate the further propagation of the illness.

I don't think something is pathological if neither the society nor the individual sees it as such.
 
I'll be concrete here to prevent you from going off on a tangent:p

- No one is suggesting that DSM is perfect.
- Who gave you the idea that DSM does not define circumstances:confused: May be you should re-read DSM.
- If anything, what DSM needs is more biological corelates.
- Psychiatry is evolving and you will see more unitary disease categories in the future, but you ae going to be even more disappointed because these will be biology based.
- Social/environmental factors ARE and WILL remain to be important factors in psychiatric illnesses but biology is going to be the main focus in the years to come.

Apologies if I do go off on tangents! I do like to write, as much for my own sake as anyone else's. I am writing a thesis on this, and I keep some of the stuff on the board in word files to help provide very rough drafts when crunch time comes.

If things become more biological, so be it, if that helps us in treatment. If we can pin down exactly how a brain is functioning and how to alter its functionality to provide a better outcome, this would be fantastic. But I certainly am skeptical (as anyone should be) of the current diagnostic categories. Still, I do additionally maintain that context should always be understood, because knowledge of this can help in treatment as well. But who am I to say; I am not a psychiatrist, yet. And surely as I grow older, I will think different.
 
Sigh. I go away for a conference and when I come back I find the discussion has taken off and I've missed out. I've done my best to catch up - but I probably can't do justice to everyones perspective...

Anti-psychiatrists (talking psychiatrists like Szasz etc here and not the frigging scientologists) sometimes say 'there isn't any such thing as mental illness'. Their reason for saying so seems to be bound up in SOCIAL PRACTICES around the concept of mental disorder, however (such as the insanity defence, the notion that psychiatrists should be able to confine and medicate people against their will etc). I think it is best to understand the anti-psychiatry critique as being about an alternative view on the nature of mental disorder - they maintain that social causal mechanisms are more important than dysfunctional genetic / neurological / cognitive mechanisms within the person.

I think... That ALL kinds of mechanisms have a role... And that the million dollar question is figuring out the releative contribution of each kind.

Anti-psychiatrists ask some important questions:
- what makes 'schizophrenia' different from 'sluggish schizophrenia' (where the dx criteria for sluggish schizophrenia was 'political dissent' and where the dx of sluggish schizophrenia is commonly accepted to be an abuse of psychiatry)?
- what makes 'schziophrenia' different from 'homosexuality' (where regarding homosexuality to be a mental disorder is also commonly regarded as an abuse of psychiatry)
- what makes 'schizophrenia' different from 'drapetomania' (where that was a suggested dx category for slaves who desired to escape their master - also regarded as an abuse of psychiatry)?

the best articulated (and most widely held) defence of psychiatry as a branch of medicine in the face of the anti-psychiatry critique is what is known as the 'Two-Stage View' (most articulately defended by Jerome Wakefield). The DSM also advocates a version of the two stage view and it is probably fair to say that the majority of psychiatrists also advocate something along the lines of the two-stage view. According to the two-stage view there are two individually necessary and jointly sufficient conditions for mental disorder:

1) Malfunction within the individual (this is meant to be objectively discovered by science)
2) Harm to the individual and / or society.

I haven't found a single theorist who maintains that the notion of 'disorder' is completely objective / non-evaluative (with respect to the 'harm' component)

My critique focuses on the supposed objectivity of the malfunction assumption. I don't think that science will tell us what the functions and malfunctions are. I think that science often ASSUMES functions or malfunctions but that science can't DISCOVER functions and malfunctions aside from simply assuming it.

So I agree that
1) Firstly, we identify people who we consider to be harmed (the thought here is that they would be better off if we could change THEM. Not change society. Change THEM)
2) We then identify the causal mechanisms (preferably those within the individual)
3) We then attach a little label 'malfunction' to those causal mechanisms IN ORDER TO JUSTIFY OUR FOCUSING ON THEM IN THE FIRST PLACE
4) Since malfunction is INFERRED FROM harm malfunction cannot be used to justify why we were interested in those individuals in the first place. THAT WOULD BE CIRCULAR.

> Our academic blathering about pre-agricultural religious ceremonies does nothing to improve the lives of those who suffer (yes, SUFFER) with this disease.

Suffer? Says who? You? Why does that justify your 'making things better' - according to you - by changing THEM - rather than your changing the society that regards them to be malfunctioning or defective?

The idea is that yes neuroscience and genetics can tell us that
'people who do x have y whereas people who don't do x don't have y'
The whole point is that whether we regard 'having y' to constitute malfunction or not depends on what we have already (normatively) decided about x. If x is 'voting democrat' then presumably (given our valuing people voting differently) y is not 'dysfunctional' (malfunctioning) rather it is merely 'dif-functioning' (functioning differently. If x is the symptoms of schizophrenia, on the other hand (which we have already decided is 'bad' in contrast to other societies who decide it is 'good') then we are supposedly justified in regarding y to be 'malfunctioning'.

Anybody see the circularity (and normativity) here?

I'm not denying that people are trying to help. This is about... How we are best to help. Whether we should 1) aim to change societies stigma / prejudice or whether we should 2) aim to change the individual such that they no longer do that which society regards with stigma / predudice.

How do we decide what we should do in order to best help these individuals?

And... If another culture says 'leave them the hell alone they are people we revere' then what justifies us in saying they are wrong????? if we insist that they are malfunctioning then how are we different from the psychiatrists who believed that political dissent was indicative of mental disorder? political dissent surely harmed the dissenting individuals (they were locked up by psychiatrists). similarly homosexuals have certainly been harmed given the intolerance (and prejudice) of society.

I don't think that psychiatry is radically different from medicine. I disagree with Szasz that the notion of 'disorder' is radically different in 'mental disorder' than it is in 'physical / somatic disorder'. I think that instead of the supposedly reputable notion of biomedical malfunctions grounding psychiatry non-normatively this shows us that the general medical notion of malfunction is similarly problematic, however.

- Woman past menopause really wants to have kid. Is she malfunctioning or not? (e.g., should she be entitled to treatment for a 'disorder' or should she have to pay for her own 'self enhancement)?
- Old people normally do get cataracts. If an old person gets a cataract should they be entitled to treatment (for malfunction) or should they have to pay for their own 'self enhancement' (since it is normal for old people to get cataracts)?

Why should we care about these issues?

- Dx of mental disorder is necessary (though not sufficient) for the insanity defence
- Dx of mental disorder entitles one (defeasibly) to third party (e.g., public, health insurance) treatment
- Dx of mental disorder is necessary (though not sufficient) for involountary confinement and / or treatment

It MATTERS. Who gets treatment and who doesn't. And... While we might think we are helping what justifies us in believing that we are when other societies (and indeed the particular individual) believe that we are HARMING??????
 
Suffer? Says who? You? Why does that justify your 'making things better' - according to you - by changing THEM - rather than your changing the society that regards them to be malfunctioning or defective?

Toby, this kind of argument only seems plausible in the abstract. If you spend time with schizophrenics you'll find that their problem has nothing to do with society not liking them, but has everything to do with their pure inability to function in any society. Sure, if you cook up a society that worships schizophrenics and supports them, then yeah, they'll be socially functional in that society, but who cares? Schizophrenia is not primarily a social disorder, there are cognitive impairments, flattening of affect, delusions...

Well unless you're going to say that reality itself is socially constructed, delusions are a pretty good sign that something is wrong with the individual, not society.


I'm not denying that people are trying to help. This is about... How we are best to help. Whether we should 1) aim to change societies stigma / prejudice or whether we should 2) aim to change the individual such that they no longer do that which society regards with stigma / predudice.

Toby, this is a false dichotomy. But you're ignoring that there is an objective problem here... Do we have to choose whether to destigmatize AIDS or treat it? No, we do both...
 
Suffer? Says who? You? Why does that justify your 'making things better' - according to you - by changing THEM - rather than your changing the society that regards them to be malfunctioning or defective?

toby, how much time have you spent working with and treating schizophrenics?

Are you a psychiatrist, resident, psychologist, SW, mental health care provider?
 
I'm not. But to dismiss what I say because of facts about my person rather than dealing with what is wrong (with anything) with what I've actually said would be an ad hominum attack:

Description of Ad Hominem

Translated from Latin to English, "Ad Hominem" means "against the man" or "against the person."
An Ad Hominem is a general category of fallacies in which a claim or argument is rejected on the basis of some irrelevant fact about the author of or the person presenting the claim or argument. Typically, this fallacy involves two steps. First, an attack against the character of person making the claim, her circumstances, or her actions is made (or the character, circumstances, or actions of the person reporting the claim). Second, this attack is taken to be evidence against the claim or argument the person in question is making (or presenting). This type of "argument" has the following form:

  1. [*]Person A makes claim X.
    [*]Person B makes an attack on person A.
    [*]Therefore A's claim is false.
The reason why an Ad Hominem (of any kind) is a fallacy is that the character, circumstances, or actions of a person do not (in most cases) have a bearing on the truth or falsity of the claim being made (or the quality of the argument being made).
Example of Ad Hominem

  1. [*]Bill: "I believe that abortion is morally wrong."
    Dave: "Of course you would say that, you're a priest."
    Bill: "What about the arguments I gave to support my position?"
    Dave: "Those don't count. Like I said, you're a priest, so you have to say that abortion is wrong. Further, you are just a lackey to the Pope, so I can't believe what you say."




 
I'm not. But to dismiss what I say because of facts about my person rather than dealing with what is wrong (with anything) with what I've actually said would be an ad hominum attack:

Description of Ad Hominem

Translated from Latin to English, "Ad Hominem" means "against the man" or "against the person."
An Ad Hominem is a general category of fallacies in which a claim or argument is rejected on the basis of some irrelevant fact about the author of or the person presenting the claim or argument. Typically, this fallacy involves two steps. First, an attack against the character of person making the claim, her circumstances, or her actions is made (or the character, circumstances, or actions of the person reporting the claim). Second, this attack is taken to be evidence against the claim or argument the person in question is making (or presenting). This type of "argument" has the following form:

  1. [*]Person A makes claim X.
    [*]Person B makes an attack on person A.
    [*]Therefore A's claim is false.
The reason why an Ad Hominem (of any kind) is a fallacy is that the character, circumstances, or actions of a person do not (in most cases) have a bearing on the truth or falsity of the claim being made (or the quality of the argument being made).
Example of Ad Hominem

  1. [*]Bill: "I believe that abortion is morally wrong."
    Dave: "Of course you would say that, you're a priest."
    Bill: "What about the arguments I gave to support my position?"
    Dave: "Those don't count. Like I said, you're a priest, so you have to say that abortion is wrong. Further, you are just a lackey to the Pope, so I can't believe what you say."





I don't think anyone above has attacked you "Ad Hominem". People are certainly trying to reason with you that Schizophrenia is a serious public health problem. Intellectualizing psychosis or espousing anti-psychiatry sentiment is not going to help your cause either because this is a psychiatry forum.

I am sure you have well meaning intentions but refusing to participate in a practical discussion and going off on tangents is probably going to be futile. For starters, I would suggest you volunteer for a week at one of the few still existing state hospitals around the country which might change your stand on this topic.
 
> I don't think anyone above has attacked you "Ad Hominem".

I was just making sure that people weren't going to :)
I assure you that my concerns aren't coming about because I'm ignorant of the behavioural symptoms that people present with. Schizophrenia runs in my family so I've had many encounters with people who have exhibited severe symptoms. I've also worked in supportive accomodation services for people with severe axis I conditions (schizophrenia, most notably) and so I have seen first hand what can happen when people suddenly stop taking their medication and so forth.

Anti-Psychiatry is an unfortunate name for people who advocate looking at social causes and advocate sociological interventions. The majority of 'anti-psychiatrists' are actually psychiatrists. Szasz, Breggins etc have seen people in the grips of psychosis and their views (even if mistaken) aren't the result of mere ignorance of the severity of the symptoms that people exhibit.

(Personally I'm interested in a middle ground where genetic, neurological, cognitive, and social causal mechanisms and interventions are ALL considered). The problem that I'm having is that the majority of research (and research funds) are diverted to genetic / neurological explanations / interventions. Cognitive research (cognitive psychology / psychotherapy) isn't as well tested (because of problems with using the 'best' EBM approach since you can't really hope that someone won't notice what kind of psychotherapy they are receiving or whether they are getting placebo). Social research is even less tested (because of problems with using the 'best' EMB approach. And because... You can't trademark a social intervention...

> People are certainly trying to reason with you that Schizophrenia is a serious public health problem.

And I'm interested in what causes it to be a serious public health problem. Is it that our society is intolerant to people who are perceived as 'different' (for example). What makes schizophrenia a genetic kind as opposed to a neurological kind as opposed to a behavioural kind as opposed to a cognitive kind as opposed to a social kind? Of course schizophrenia isn't likely to be a kind (at any of these levels at all). But... I don't see the harm in asking what it is about our social practices (since the industrial revolution) that has lead to increase in prevalence.

> Intellectualizing psychosis or espousing anti-psychiatry sentiment is not going to help your cause either because this is a psychiatry forum.

And I'm writing a PhD thesis on the Philosophy of Psychiatry. It is a fairly new field, still finding its way. Here is a blurb on a compendum so you get some idea of the field:

> This is a comprehensive resource of original essays by leading thinkers exploring the newly emerging inter-disciplinary field of the philosophy of psychiatry. The contributors aim to define this exciting field and to highlight the philosophical assumptions and issues that underlie psychiatric theory and practice, the category of mental disorder, and rationales for its social, clinical and legal treatment. As a branch of medicine and a healing practice, psychiatry relies on presuppositions that are deeply and unavoidably philosophical. Conceptions of rationality, personhood and autonomy frame our understanding and treatment of mental disorder. Philosophical questions of evidence, reality, truth, science, and values give meaning to each of the social institutions and practices concerned with mental health care. The psyche, the mind and its relation to the body, subjectivity and consciousness, personal identity and character, thought, will, memory, and emotions are equally the stuff of traditional philosophical inquiry and of the psychiatric enterprise. A new research field--the philosophy of psychiatry--began to form during the last two decades of the twentieth century. Prompted by a growing recognition that philosophical ideas underlie many aspects of clinical practice, psychiatric theorizing and research, mental health policy, and the economics and politics of mental health care, academic philosophers, practitioners, and philosophically trained psychiatrists have begun a series of vital, cross-disciplinary exchanges. This volume provides a sampling of the research yield of those exchanges. Leading thinkers in this area, including clinicians, philosophers, psychologists, and interdisciplinary teams, provide original discussions that are not only expository and critical, but also a reflection of their authors' distinctive and often powerful and imaginative viewpoints and theories. All the discussions break new theoretical ground. As befits such an interdisciplinary effort, they are methodologically eclectic, and varied and divergent in their assumptions and conclusions; together, they comprise a significant new exploration, definition, and mapping of the philosophical aspects of psychiatric theory and practice.

> I am sure you have well meaning intentions but refusing to participate in a practical discussion and going off on tangents is probably going to be futile.

I don't mind participating in practical discussions, but conceptual issues (and the practical implications of those) is my main area of interest. I don't mean to go off on tangents...
 
I'm not. But to dismiss what I say because of facts about my person rather than dealing with what is wrong (with anything) with what I've actually said would be an ad hominum attack:

My question had nothing to do with trying to attack you. But you implied that schizophrenics don't suffer from their disease in reply to OPD's post. That simply made me wonder how much experience you've actually had working with them. I'm not going to debate my experience with these patients or get into specifics, but they do suffer from their disease. It can be very sad to see.
 
>Anti-Psychiatry is an unfortunate name for people who advocate looking at social causes and advocate sociological interventions.

(Personally I'm interested in a middle ground where genetic, neurological, cognitive, and social causal mechanisms and interventions are ALL considered). The problem that I'm having is that the majority of research (and research funds) are diverted to genetic / neurological explanations / interventions. Cognitive research (cognitive psychology / psychotherapy) isn't as well tested (because of problems with using the 'best' EBM approach since you can't really hope that someone won't notice what kind of psychotherapy they are receiving or whether they are getting placebo). Social research is even less tested (because of problems with using the 'best' EMB approach. And because... You can't trademark a social intervention...


I am saying it again like it has been said countless number of times on this forum. Sociological interventions already ARE and WILL continue to be the an important factor in treating psychiatric illnesses including schizohrenia but they are in no way a substitute for medication.


And I'm interested in what causes it to be a serious public health problem. Is it that our society is intolerant to people who are perceived as 'different' (for example). What makes schizophrenia a genetic kind as opposed to a neurological kind as opposed to a behavioural kind as opposed to a cognitive kind as opposed to a social kind? Of course schizophrenia isn't likely to be a kind (at any of these levels at all). But... I don't see the harm in asking what it is about our social practices (since the industrial revolution) that has lead to increase in prevalence.

I am happy you are interested in this question. As a physcian, I see this as similar to answering- Why has the prevalance of heart disease, HTN or DM or may be let's say HIV has increased in the last few years? Answers might be different but the context of query remains similar.
 
Suffering is a tricky notion so I've been trying to avoid it ;-)

I kind of hate to do this... But it can help with clarity (sometimes). Suffering isn't necessary for mental disorder (people in the grip of mania aren't suffering) and it isn't sufficient for mental disorder either... Is it? I've been wondering about that. Emotional / psychological distress... Are there kinds of emotional / psychological distress that are insufficient for mental disorder or is it the case that if someone is emotionally / psychologically distressed then that constitutes a mental disorder? I guess we provide an exception for grief (you get one year to recover before it is depression according to DSM IV - people got four years to recover before it was a problem in ancient greece).

Harm is an interesting notion too... Most people say that harm is normative. The idea is to dump all the normativity into 'harm' and keep 'malfunction' objective and non-normative. But... Surely there are objective facts about harm? Surely I can think I'm harmed and yet actually I'm not. Or you could think I'm harmed but actually I'm not. I have no idea how to specify this objective notion of harm, however. Maybe... It has something to do with survival? I think that might be plausible in the case of physical disorder. I'm less clear on its relevance for psychiatry. It would seem to pick up the very severe cases where people really can't look after themselves (and where nobody else looks after them). It is unclear how the average person with social anxiety's survival is threatened. Or a person with a fear of flying. Evolutionary fitness gives us survival and reproduction as the relevant standard for assessing harm. But then the problem is that reproductive rights are one of the most controversial areas of medicine...

> Sociological interventions already ARE and WILL continue to be the an important factor in treating psychiatric illnesses including schizohrenia but they are in no way a substitute for medication.

I wonder if psychiatrists said the same thing about sluggish schizophrenia and homosexuality?

> Why has the prevalance of heart disease, HTN or DM or may be let's say HIV has increased in the last few years? Answers might be different but the context of query remains similar.

Yeah, the context of query is similar. At one point in time it looked like schizophrenia was much more prevalent in the USA than it was in the UK. People were surprised. Wondered why on earth that would be. They found that psychiatrists in the USA had a broader concept of schizophrenia. Patients that were diagnosed with bi-polar or depression or a personality disorder in the UK would have been diagnosed with schizophrenia in the US. (Not sure how they found that out. Maybe they videotaped interviews and got clinicians to offer a diagnosis and that is how they found the difference in diagnostic practices).

In this case it wasn't that the USA had an epidemic of schizophrenia. It was just that the US clinicians had a different concept. The thought was that if they had the same concept (if inter-rater reliability between US and UK clinicians was higher) then the prevalence would be about the same in both countries.

So. One way prevalence can go up is that the concept is expanded such that it applies to more and more and more people over time. Sometimes the DSM alters dx criteria in order to curb prevalence (e.g., the amnesia requirement was reinstated for Dissociative Identity Disorder so as to make it harder for patients to meet criteria. One consequence of this might be that clinician's become more liberal about how they interpret 'amnesia'). Anyway, the criteria was altered in order to curb prevalence in the face of an 'epidemic' that the majority of UK psychiatrists (and some US psychiatrists) simply don't believe in. (Now there is a social kind - maybe. Ian Hacking has an interesting story to tell of conversion and fugue and dissociation). Another way prevalence can go up is that people just are sicker than they were - like when people get the plague or smallpox etc.

So... Depression is meant to be an epidemic in... 2010 I think. What do you think? Are we expanding our concept (e.g., dxing and medicating people who wouldn't have been considered harmed enough for dxing and medicating before) or is it just that people are sicker than they were?
 
Hey Toby,
It really is a kind of anti-psychiatry view that you're promoting, as far as I can see. It seems very convoluted, though. You admit that behavior entirely supervenes on brain processes... Right there you're committed to systematic changes in behavior being accompanied by systematic changes in neural function. The converse of this is that systematically changing neural function can change behavior... well I think you agree with all of that so far.

You want to say that pathological thought processes combined with well-documented neural abnormalities does not necessarily indicate that schizophrenia is a disease, much less one with an organic basis... You seem to think that a 50% twin-concordance rate for schizophrenia is conclusive evidence against a genetic cause of the disease?

It seems like the main thrust of your argument is that psychiatric disorders are defined normatively... well no one's arguing with that. Medicine is only in the business of treating things that are bad. But so what? Yeah, I suppose that growing horns out of your head is probably tolerable in a society that worships you for it, and if that is supposed to mean that growing horns is OK, then... whatever.

In the case of any major mental disorder there is no question that having it is not worth any amount of imaginary prestige that might have existed in preliterate societies... Try having major depression... you can't be happy. So how much good do you think that prestige is going to do? It's probably a lot better to correct whatever the problem is that's pysically keeping you from being happy. SSRIs are effective... You're not arguing with that, are you?

Do you have some particular thing in you're background that makes you have this anti-psychiatry basis. You mentioned that schizophrenia runs in your family... In general I don't think that anti-psychiatry arguments have much force to them, the vast majority of research papers are supporting pharmacological treatment for mental disorders. Granted, they also support social and psychological intervention, but we use those too...
 
Suffering is a tricky notion so I've been trying to avoid it ;-)

I kind of hate to do this... But it can help with clarity (sometimes). Suffering isn't necessary for mental disorder (people in the grip of mania aren't suffering) and it isn't sufficient for mental disorder either... Is it? I've been wondering about that. Emotional / psychological distress... Are there kinds of emotional / psychological distress that are insufficient for mental disorder or is it the case that if someone is emotionally / psychologically distressed then that constitutes a mental disorder? I guess we provide an exception for grief (you get one year to recover before it is depression according to DSM IV - people got four years to recover before it was a problem in ancient greece).

Harm is an interesting notion too... Most people say that harm is normative. The idea is to dump all the normativity into 'harm' and keep 'malfunction' objective and non-normative. But... Surely there are objective facts about harm? Surely I can think I'm harmed and yet actually I'm not. Or you could think I'm harmed but actually I'm not. I have no idea how to specify this objective notion of harm, however. Maybe... It has something to do with survival? I think that might be plausible in the case of physical disorder. I'm less clear on its relevance for psychiatry. It would seem to pick up the very severe cases where people really can't look after themselves (and where nobody else looks after them). It is unclear how the average person with social anxiety's survival is threatened. Or a person with a fear of flying. Evolutionary fitness gives us survival and reproduction as the relevant standard for assessing harm. But then the problem is that reproductive rights are one of the most controversial areas of medicine...

> Sociological interventions already ARE and WILL continue to be the an important factor in treating psychiatric illnesses including schizohrenia but they are in no way a substitute for medication.

I wonder if psychiatrists said the same thing about sluggish schizophrenia and homosexuality?

> Why has the prevalance of heart disease, HTN or DM or may be let's say HIV has increased in the last few years? Answers might be different but the context of query remains similar.

Yeah, the context of query is similar. At one point in time it looked like schizophrenia was much more prevalent in the USA than it was in the UK. People were surprised. Wondered why on earth that would be. They found that psychiatrists in the USA had a broader concept of schizophrenia. Patients that were diagnosed with bi-polar or depression or a personality disorder in the UK would have been diagnosed with schizophrenia in the US. (Not sure how they found that out. Maybe they videotaped interviews and got clinicians to offer a diagnosis and that is how they found the difference in diagnostic practices).

In this case it wasn't that the USA had an epidemic of schizophrenia. It was just that the US clinicians had a different concept. The thought was that if they had the same concept (if inter-rater reliability between US and UK clinicians was higher) then the prevalence would be about the same in both countries.

So. One way prevalence can go up is that the concept is expanded such that it applies to more and more and more people over time. Sometimes the DSM alters dx criteria in order to curb prevalence (e.g., the amnesia requirement was reinstated for Dissociative Identity Disorder so as to make it harder for patients to meet criteria. One consequence of this might be that clinician's become more liberal about how they interpret 'amnesia'). Anyway, the criteria was altered in order to curb prevalence in the face of an 'epidemic' that the majority of UK psychiatrists (and some US psychiatrists) simply don't believe in. (Now there is a social kind - maybe. Ian Hacking has an interesting story to tell of conversion and fugue and dissociation). Another way prevalence can go up is that people just are sicker than they were - like when people get the plague or smallpox etc.

So... Depression is meant to be an epidemic in... 2010 I think. What do you think? Are we expanding our concept (e.g., dxing and medicating people who wouldn't have been considered harmed enough for dxing and medicating before) or is it just that people are sicker than they were?


This is exactly the reason we need more biomarkers and corelates to diagnose mental illness. I just hope this happens sooner rather than later because this kind of thinking is regressive and outdated. Anti-psychiatry or scientology people are filling people's minds with so much unnnecessary doubt.

Can you imagine that a pharmacist (YES, A PHARMACIST) told one of my patients(young kid with Post Head Injury psychosis and mood symptoms) that Risperdal and Celexa in combination cause heart attacks if taken over long term:bullcrap:. I wonder where he got his information from. He, in fact, advised him to read a book called "Mind Power". I was so incensed that I wanted to go and smack him in his face:mad: but thankfully I used up my energies in pscyhoeducating pt and his family:) Similarly, there are these anti-psychiatry psychiatrists and psychologists spreading this venom.

P.S.- I don't think OP is really interested in learning or willing to be convinced with logical arguement. We are obviously being used for writing a philosophical thesis:(. I'll probably not post in this thread anymore. Enjoy the discussion:rolleyes:
 
If I'm trying to promote a view then that view is going to be that there are all kinds of causal mechanisms involved in the production and maintenence of mental disorder (e.g., genetic, neurological, cognitive, social).

With respect to my promoting a 'kind of anti-psychiatry view' it is (of course) important to focus on specific problems with the view rather than just writing it off as 'anti-psychiatry' - which would be an ad hominum attack.

> You admit that behavior entirely supervenes on brain processes... Right there you're committed to systematic changes in behavior being accompanied by systematic changes in neural function.

That doesn't follow. Supervenience is an asymmetric relation. No change in psychology without a change in neurology but neurology can change without alterations to psychology. Learning how to cook a good curry is, of course, going to involve neurological changes. It is still the case that one is better off showing someone how to cook (social / behavioural invervention) rather than attempting to create the relevant neural changes by way of psychosurgery / psychotropic medications. It is an open question what kinds of interventions are going to be most effective for the relevant behavioural changes at the end of the day. It is still an open question.

> You want to say that pathological thought processes combined with well-documented neural abnormalities does not necessarily indicate that schizophrenia is a disease, much less one with an organic basis...

I don't want to say that. I want to ask a question:
- What makes the thought processes 'pathological' compared with 'different'?
- What makes the neural differences 'abnormalities' rather than 'differences'.

Again: If we found the thought process difference or neural difference that results in voting democrat we wouldn't consider that difference to be pathological. How about if we find the thought process difference or neural difference that results in homosexuality? Would we have found 'pathology' or 'difference' in that case? How about if we found the thought process difference or neural difference that results in belief in god or voting democrat or being a pedophile or having an addiction? Pathology or difference?

> You seem to think that a 50% twin-concordance rate for schizophrenia is conclusive evidence against a genetic cause of the disease?

It is evidence that non-genetic factors (all together) play a more substantive role than genetic ones. The best genetic candidate is a three gene locus found in about 7% of people with schizophrenia and around 14% of people without. That is not a very robust finding. Not very robust at all.

> It seems like the main thrust of your argument is that psychiatric disorders are defined normatively...

Yeah.

> Medicine is only in the business of treating things that are bad.

Well... It is important when we need to decide whether we should treat conditions like drapetomania, sluggish schizophrenia, homosexuality, addiction, belief in god, pedophilia, etc etc etc.

> In the case of any major mental disorder there is no question that having it is not worth any amount of imaginary prestige that might have existed in preliterate societies...

But there ARE adaptationist accounts of either mental disorder or people who have low level symptoms or of some trait that is an inevitable by-product of mental disorder and / or low level symptoms. If you stipulate that mental disorders are evolutionary dysfunctions then that seems to be writing off that whole line of research as being ill-conceived. Shouldn't we wait to see how the models turn out before deciding whether good explanations can be offered along these lines?

> SSRIs are effective... You're not arguing with that, are you?

They were never marketed as being more effective than previous medications for depression. They were marketed as having less nasty side-effects. I think there is actually evidence that they aren't as helpful than previous ones (but who the hell wants to go on an MAOI diet?) They are... Around 20% more than placebo, I think, and there is some question as to whether the double blind placebo is broken due to the taste of the medication and / or the side-effects of anxiety, sexual dysfunction etc.

> Do you have some particular thing in you're background that makes you have this anti-psychiatry basis.

That really is starting to look like an ad hominum attack... (I mean 'attack' in a technical sense - not at all to imply hostile).

> In general I don't think that anti-psychiatry arguments have much force to them

The arguments are often caricatured because people find them disturbing if they interpret them charitably and try and solve the problems they raise and / or because people have trouble integrating the good points that anti-psychiatrists raise into (some revised version) of the medical model.

But... I'm not asking you to consider the anti-psychiatry arguments as they are typically repeated / cast into the literature. I'm just raising some questions and wondering... How we answer those questions satisfactorily.

Because... We would surely like an objective criteria that legitimates depression and schizophrenia and the like as legitimate areas for psychiatry to focus on and which shows us that draeptomania and sluggish schizophrenia and homosexuality were abuses of psychiatry.

And...

Bonus marks if your distinction tells us whether currently controversial conditions like addiction and sociopathy are appropriate for psychiatry to focus on or not.

I don't think that there is a distinction available currently that can do the work that is required of it. I think that progress on this issue will come from normative considerations and not from scientific advances. I guess that is my thing really, yeah.
 
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