Hydroxyzine pamoate vs hydrochloride
Started by supertreat
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i would think only the dissolution rates would be different.
im going to say its just tradition.
im going to say its just tradition.
I thought it had to do with lipophilicity... getting into the CNS and whatnot. 😎
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Not really.
double negative
Okay, There is no clinically significant difference between Hydroxzyzine HCL and Hydroxyzine Pamoate.
How would the salt form change the lipophilocity of the dissolved (dissociated) drug?
Only the HCL salt is available in parenteral dosage forms
From PL on why people think Vistaril is indicated for anxiety.
Both drugs were introduced to the market in the 1950's. Roerig first came out with hydroxyzine HCl tablets and syrup by the name of Atarax. Shortly after, an injectable version was marketed by the name of Vistaril. It's the SAME drug...just a different name.
The injectable is preferred over oral when a quick acting sedative or antianxiety is needed...especially for treating acutely disturbed patients. This is probably how Vistaril got its reputation for being better for anxiety/sleep.
Then Pfizer began to introduce their line of hydroxyzine pamoate products...the suspension first, followed by capsules over a decade later. Despite being a different salt form, they also got the name Vistaril...and likely the stigma along with it.
Both drugs were introduced to the market in the 1950's. Roerig first came out with hydroxyzine HCl tablets and syrup by the name of Atarax. Shortly after, an injectable version was marketed by the name of Vistaril. It's the SAME drug...just a different name.
The injectable is preferred over oral when a quick acting sedative or antianxiety is needed...especially for treating acutely disturbed patients. This is probably how Vistaril got its reputation for being better for anxiety/sleep.
Then Pfizer began to introduce their line of hydroxyzine pamoate products...the suspension first, followed by capsules over a decade later. Despite being a different salt form, they also got the name Vistaril...and likely the stigma along with it.
Remember that dissolved doesn't mean dissociated. Weak acids and bases can dissolve but most do not dissociate.
By using a weak acid (for example a fatty acid) to make a salt, you can create a salt that don't dissociate much, and hence the drug as a whole is more lipophilic due to the fattiness.
My boyfriend, a pharmacology nerd, swears there's a difference, and he's not one to be swayed easily by placebo effects. *shrug*
Since when does state law have anything to do with clinical significance. What home are you a resident of?
most physicians probably don't even know that hydroxyzine pamoate exists
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