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Hi, everybody! So I was doing a case study for one of my classes and wanted to make sure I got it right.
A 35-year old female has had several episodes, each separated by several months, in which she experiences brief periods of physical weakness, clumsiness of her legs and hands, visual disturbances, and mood swings. Her weakness is most prominent in her lowere extremities. CT scans show evidence of multiple lesions in the white matter of hte brain and spinal cord. During her last episode, there were increasing neurological deficits due to an increasing number of disseminated lesions. Prednisone (60 mg/day for 5 to 7 days) was prescribed and helped her return to as normal and active life as possible.
So it she suffering from MS? Why was she prescibed only 60 mg and only for a week. I found info that MS patients usually get 200 mg.
Thank you, your input will be greatly appreciated.
A 35-year old female has had several episodes, each separated by several months, in which she experiences brief periods of physical weakness, clumsiness of her legs and hands, visual disturbances, and mood swings. Her weakness is most prominent in her lowere extremities. CT scans show evidence of multiple lesions in the white matter of hte brain and spinal cord. During her last episode, there were increasing neurological deficits due to an increasing number of disseminated lesions. Prednisone (60 mg/day for 5 to 7 days) was prescribed and helped her return to as normal and active life as possible.
So it she suffering from MS? Why was she prescibed only 60 mg and only for a week. I found info that MS patients usually get 200 mg.
Thank you, your input will be greatly appreciated.