With regard to the passage and question pasted below from a kaplan bio section test:
Would anyone mind clarifying why, if you were to have one worm with one protein knocked out (ced3-) but the other protein of interest functional (ced4+) mate with another worm who had the opposite genotype (ced3+/ced4-), that all of their offspring would be able to function as wild types? The passage here doesn't state whether or not a ced3- or ced4- are dominant over the ced3+ or ced4+ alleles, so in this case are we expected to assume that they're not dominant and hence a ced3-/ced3+ ced4-/ced4+ offspring would act as a wildtype? it seems ambiguous to me.. will the aamc be clearer or am I missing something?
Thanks!!
Would anyone mind clarifying why, if you were to have one worm with one protein knocked out (ced3-) but the other protein of interest functional (ced4+) mate with another worm who had the opposite genotype (ced3+/ced4-), that all of their offspring would be able to function as wild types? The passage here doesn't state whether or not a ced3- or ced4- are dominant over the ced3+ or ced4+ alleles, so in this case are we expected to assume that they're not dominant and hence a ced3-/ced3+ ced4-/ced4+ offspring would act as a wildtype? it seems ambiguous to me.. will the aamc be clearer or am I missing something?
Thanks!!
