I've asked this in the Osteopathic forum but haven't been able to get a clear response, so I thought I'd ask it here in the hopes that some of the helpful DO students could share their insight. As a potential future DO student, I've thought a lot about OMM, and I'm having trouble figuring it out.
Essentially:
If it's been shown to work, why aren't MDs using it?
If it has not been shown to work, why are DOs using it?
I'm all about the "treat the whole patient" philosophy (and I think a lot of MD schools are too), but I'm truly baffled by OMM.
Thanks!
Essentially:
If it's been shown to work, why aren't MDs using it?
If it has not been shown to work, why are DOs using it?
I'm all about the "treat the whole patient" philosophy (and I think a lot of MD schools are too), but I'm truly baffled by OMM.
Thanks!