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Same as the probability of any 8 child combination, since it is a specific order.What is the probability of having 2 girls followed by 2 boys followed by 2 girls followed by 2 boys... 8 children in total?
Im thinking 0.39%, but it is one of the end questions and they are usually harder so is there some sort of a trick to this?
Same as the probability of any 8 child combination, since it is a specific order.
You're correct. It is (1/2)^8 = 0.39%.
No what you're doing is starting with a family of 8 kids (4B / 4G) and one-by-one choosing them to do whatever.with a deep sense of humbleness, the highest admiration and greatest level of respect and awe for mathgod, I would beg to differ.
please correct me if I'm wrong.
since youre not replacing kids, you can't just do (1/8)^8. you would do 1/8 * 1/7 * 1/6...
furthermore, that also would be incorrect. bec u the chance of picking the first boy is not 1/8. its 4/8 because there r 4 boys.
so I would do 4/8 * 3/7 * 4/6 * 3/5 * 2/4, etc. why is this wrong.
No what you're doing is starting with a family of 8 kids (4B / 4G) and one-by-one choosing them to do whatever.
If I said there's a family of 4B 4G and you need to sit them down in a row of 8 chairs, what is the probability of seating them in the order GG-BB-GG-BB then you'd be correct.
The probability of having a girl first is 1/2. The probability of having a girl second is 1/2. The probability of having a boy third is 1/2. You can look at all 8 births separately. Together you just multiply all those 1/2s and get (1/2)^8.
Not (1/8)^8 which is what you said in your reply to me.