Bit confused on the menstrual cycle and role of estrogen/progesterone on the cervical lining.
So basically a woman is most fertile on the day of ovulation and the 5 days preceding it during the follicular/proliferative phase. Why is it that we want thin, watery cervical mucous (driven by estrogen) in the follicular phase, but in the luteal phase (driven by progesterone) we have a thick, viscous cervical mucous that is impenetrable by sperm?
Is it just that after ovulation, either fertilization has happened or has not happened, and regardless we want to prevent sperm from climbing up the cervix during the luteal phase? Why is that? Does that just close the window biologically? Seems inefficient, or is it that if fertilization indeed did occur, we'd want to prevent another egg from being fertilized?
Thanks.
So basically a woman is most fertile on the day of ovulation and the 5 days preceding it during the follicular/proliferative phase. Why is it that we want thin, watery cervical mucous (driven by estrogen) in the follicular phase, but in the luteal phase (driven by progesterone) we have a thick, viscous cervical mucous that is impenetrable by sperm?
Is it just that after ovulation, either fertilization has happened or has not happened, and regardless we want to prevent sperm from climbing up the cervix during the luteal phase? Why is that? Does that just close the window biologically? Seems inefficient, or is it that if fertilization indeed did occur, we'd want to prevent another egg from being fertilized?
Thanks.
