I am curious as to ya'lls thoughts on this. I have learned that some docs are placing a plain Bupivacaine spinal for a TKA or THA, then routinely laying the patient down and placing a LMA and starting inhalational anesthetic. The patient gets a periarticular cocktail injection from the surgeon prior to closing. The patient is then billed for a GA and the plain local spinal is billed as a post-op pain procedure, even though the post-op pain relief is only the time between the 60-90 min of surgery and when the Bupivacaine wears off. Apparently, insurances do pay for this additional hour or so of post-op pain relief. Anyone out there do something similar?
Maybe this will help explain: We do our total joints this way and ill admit it does sound weird at first... this technique is designed for the outpatient world/eras
The spinal IS NOT a FULL spinal. Its 1-1.2ml of the 0.75% bupi. No narcs.
This creates a dense sensory block, with no need for additional analgesics intra-op.
However it allows some motor movement to occur. Hence the LMA/tube.
When the patient wakes up, IME from watching them at the center, there is no pain for 3+hrs but usually full strength within 30 mins to 1hr.
This allows PT to happen with the spinal still blocking sensory. Ambulation to happen with crutches and a close observer. Urination is the last step occuring in 3-4 hrs.
It also allows me to do an ACB while still no sensation post op.
Patients leave the center completely comfortable with maybe 1-2 percocet in addition to the above.
If I were to give a FULL dose spinal, ambulation and PT would be very delayed, urination would be very delayed, and this all might hold up the DC from the ASC.
But yes then it would give you full anesthesia intra-op and the LMA/tube becomes redundant.
I think the idea you may be missing is that the spinal is PARTIAL in order to wear off faster for eras purposes.