Treating chlamydia and gonorrhea

[watermen]

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I found this confusing.

When a person is diagnosed with gonorrhea we treat for chlamydia as well right?

What about a person with chlamydia, do we treat for gonorrhea as well? I found different sources saying different thing. The main reason is that, gonorrhea is much easily diagnosed compared to chlamydia, so if chlamydia is diagnosed and gonorrhea not found, most likely the patient will not have gonorrhea. But the reverse is not true.

 

[tawanda]

If a person is found to only have chlamydia, then only treat for chlamydia. And you are right, treat for chlamydia if gonorrhea is diagnosed. My guess as to the reason for this is it is harder to miss gonorrhea (you gan see the GN diplococci on gram stain) and it is pretty easy to miss chlamydia because you don't see it on gram stain.

I am of course a mere MS4 and my sources were USMLE step 2 secrets and USMLE world (this question was starred as high-yield in their Qbank). I know these aren't very scientific sources, but at least for the boards that is probably the answer.

what a first post 🙂

 

[tawanda]

I'd just like to say, I got this very question on Step 2 today.