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No clinical validation has been performed on this test. Their performance specifications were limited to contrived spiked samples.
I was going to mention something about this test platform only having 55-60% accuracy, but couldn't find the literature to back that figure up (besides the medlab subreddit) nor would I know the reason why besides the speculation of the test only taking 10 minutes for negatives and 3 minutes for positives.This. In fact I have heard very very bad stuff comparing this isothermal cycler (which is why its so fast) vs. true Taq PCR like Cepheid.
Given Cepheid's NP swab sensitivity isnt great, if Abbott is worse than that sends shivers down my spine.
I love how people will push "evidence based medicine" when its convenient to them and will abandon all pretense of science when they want...
This is because (if this test is based on similar methodologies like RT PCR) the test is dose dependent on the amount of DNA bound to the probe to generate a fluophore or other detectable event. If there is a lot of stuff for the probe to bind, you will see it after the appropriate number of cycles. To be negative, the detection must not be triggered after all cycles are complete. A positive test will trigger (if a test can be called mid run) as soon as the detection is made, which will be before 10 minutes.I was going to mention something about this test platform only having 55-60% accuracy, but couldn't find the literature to back that figure up (besides the medlab subreddit) nor would I know the reason why besides the speculation of the test only taking 10 minutes for negatives and 3 minutes for positives.
Do you have a link for that statement or was this an emailed statement from the company? I can't find any statements on the interwebs. I asked my manager about the issue after you posted this. Funny enough, our main hospital/pathology/lab leadership already received the statement and will discuss if the community hospitals will start testing dry NP swabs tomorrow. I just read a in the Abbott procedure that the swabs should be thrown away after they've been introduced to the media/saline for 10 seconds, but no longer than 1 hour. I can't understand why a swab still being present in the specimen would be an issue.Abbott just released a statement saying swabs in viral media should not be used because it reduces sensitivity (or something like that). Dry swabs only. The ones in our labs are coming back positive a reasonable percentage of the time. Have no way of knowing yet whether it's truly a significant underestimate or not. The validation worked fine and included swabs on known positive volunteer inpatients.
One physician I consult with told me her hospital was deploying this for all patients with respiratory issues and the results of the test would determine if staff would need PPE. She asked if this was a sound plan. I told her that even the collection of specimen only has a sensitivity of up to 85% or so, and this particular test has not been clinically validated by the manufacturer. Additionally, even with contrived samples used in the performance documentation they never tested the system near its stated LOD. AND, the positive samples used for testing (for spiking) were derived from patients with severe disease and known extremely high viral counts. The conclusion: don't bet your life on this.
This makes me so nervous. I’m not an expert by any means, but I hope the staff at your facility stay healthy. Today, 2 of our phlebotomists were exposed to a patient that was admitted with a negative result and came back positive 2 days later. No precautions, isolation protocols, nothing. Both of them are quarantined at home for a few days now.One physician I consult with told me her hospital was deploying this for all patients with respiratory issues and the results of the test would determine if staff would need PPE. She asked if this was a sound plan. I told her that even the collection of specimen only has a sensitivity of up to 85% or so, and this particular test has not been clinically validated by the manufacturer. Additionally, even with contrived samples used in the performance documentation they never tested the system near its stated LOD. AND, the positive samples used for testing (for spiking) were derived from patients with severe disease and known extremely high viral counts. The conclusion: don't bet your life on this.
From my understanding although these are RTPCR they are not quantitative but binary. I don’t know how many cycles are required by controls to define sufficient amplification for detection. On a non quantitative but binary test even amplification of small amounts of target do not have a cycle cutoff based on control runs. Isn’t it arbitrary? What is the minimum amount of target necessary when you don’t know quantity of target on the swab? Don’t you just run it for as long as it takes to get a possible detection? I did quantitative PCR for years and there was always a baseline presumed amount of target and this was assessed when the controls were set up for the number of cycles necessary for presence or absence of target when validating. This is the problem I have with these binarized tests. They have no real relation to viral load and disease state they are only demonstrating presence or absence of target.
Then why doesn’t any paper, report, data set make any comment about number of cycles to detection. What is the theoretical limit or realistic limit for of number of cycles necessary in a negative results to determine definitive negativity on a binary test. I have never seen any reports of death by COVID discussing viral load or amount of target. Wouldnt this be an important piece of data?. Does presumed viral load have any relatoinship to clinical symptoms or cause of death since the virus presumably invades epithelial cells through the widely expressed ACE2 enzyme? Or would this have any relationship to mounting a presumable immune response?I would think there is still a relation to viral load, even if it is not stated or reported. Based on the input material and controls, and the number of cycles needed (ct) to trigger detection, you can backwards calculate what the original amount of initial target material. The binary test may simply not tell you what ct is, but is still measured.
Then why doesn’t any paper, report, data set make any comment about number of cycles to detection. What is the theoretical limit or realistic limit for of number of cycles necessary in a negative results to determine definitive negativity on a binary test. I have never seen any reports of death by COVID discussing viral load or amount of target. Wouldnt this be an important piece of data?. Does presumed viral have any relatoinship to clinical symptoms or cause of death since the virus presumably invades epithelial cells through the wildly expressed ACE2 enzyme? Or would this have any relationship to mounting a presumable immune response?
So the ct is proprietary that makes sense but I still don’t understand how this is determined and validated in the current setting of “asymptomatic carriers” and individuals with comorbidities that can have other causes of pneumonia that leads to ARDS and death. Many patients with lack of reserve and comorbidities impacting the respiratory and cardiovascular systems succumb to pneumonia that may involve multiple microorganisms. How are investigators assessing whether COVID is among other viruses or bacteria resulting in ARDS, ventilatory dependence and death. In any compromised state any number of microorganisms can colonize and depleted reserve resulting in lethality. Especially when the majority of those dying are older. I guess investigators can extrapolate and determine quantity of viral load based on the proprietary Ct (19-26 cycles in most test I have seen) but there are so many variables here including method of procurement, the fact that this is an RNA virus and thus more readily destroyed by RNAses present everywhere. It seems like there is too much we don’t know and some of this data is extrapolated from SARS which is a start but possibly a very different virus in terms of infection and behavior. Did SARS have asymptomatic carriers? Probably not as it was much more lethal and less infectious.I know several studies have looked at viral load, but to your point, the assessment between clinical severity or death and viral load is probably assumed at this point with no firm connection established to date. This has been very problematic looking at clinical studies with antiviral medications that measure viral load as a determinant of response. Additionally, this is often used for determining low long the virus can remain on surfaces or in the air, without knowing if those detected particles are actually still infectious. Viral load, by the way, is determined using the methods I outlined above.
To your first point, however, the answer is likely that this device has a proprietary and internally tested ct cutoff as part of an algorithm for a "yes" answer, so that is the output. As it is proprietary, Abbott may have a reason to not share that information, and it should not be relevant as the "yes" answer is pre-determined based on the inputs to the machine to calibrate the answer. Of course, in light of the fact that this was not very rigorously tested with COVID-19, there is possibility that this "yes" is not a very accurate "yes" in real clinical samples.
So the ct is proprietary that makes sense but I still don’t understand how this is determined and validated in the current setting of “asymptomatic carriers” and individuals with comorbidities that can have other causes of pneumonia that leads to ARDS and death. Many patients with lack of reserve and comorbidities impacting the respiratory and cardiovascular systems succumb to pneumonia that may involve multiple microorganisms...