Why is the dominant phenotype % lower than that of recessive phenotype %? I always thought the dominant phenotype will be, well, dominant. Someone please explain! Thank you!
- Joined
- May 17, 2008
- Messages
- 3,022
- Reaction score
- 3,617
Two different concepts: the dominant phenotype will always show when you have the dominant allele, but that says nothing about the frequency of that allele in the population. So there could be an allele for (making one up here) blindness that guarantees you show the dominant phenotype (blindness), but if the allele is incredibly rare (e.g. only 5 people in the world have it), it wouldn't be seen more often than the recessive phenotype (vision).
A dominant allele just means possessing it will result in the expression of a dominant phenotype. It's a separate concept from how frequently that phenotype is seen in the population.
A dominant allele just means possessing it will result in the expression of a dominant phenotype. It's a separate concept from how frequently that phenotype is seen in the population.
