ethics question you might face on interview trail

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I derive my ethical foundations based on the decision that will produce the most positive outcomes and ensures mutual consent.

For me, it depends entirely on how many bone marrow donors we have and whether they could cover the demand for bone marrow. If not, then I would have no issues offering a financial incentive for bone marrow transfers. Bone marrow donation has minimal risks to the donors, and I don't think there is any issue with allowing those in need of money to donate bone marrow. As long as the bone marrow donators are screened for health and are ensured to be safe after the donation, I don't see any issues. I see a benefit to the patients and to their donors.

Even if this makes bone marrow transfers more expensive, it definitely would produce a better outcome. A patient not being able to receive a bone marrow transplant secondary to non-availability is worse outcome than a patient who needs to pay more for a bone marrow transplant.

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An uncompromising neoliberal viewpoint indeed.
Not quite. I do not associate with any movement or policy model, just plain old liberty.
I believe you mean that you believe the government should have one role.
Yes
e.g. "no one should force moral values on others"
In a free society (an idealistic state), no one (no Public official/Mandarin/Civil Servant) can force (use government coercion)...
"A government should have one role"
I see your point
"A government should not legislate that"
Well, a group can legislate a set of rules of conduct that they deem right and enforce them through power of government. Did they legislate morality? Well, they created a law that will govern my behavior (to a certain extent), but am I moral now?
The liberal thinkers of the enlightenment were brilliant, but I would prefer to not diminish their legacy by offering up distillations of their dialogue in short normative responses that effectively obliterate the nuance surrounding every social, economic, and political issue we face today
I am not interested in neoliberalism nor I want to discuss their policy. My response was based on a philosophy I adhere to.
 
@Dr. Trenb - I would only counter that I think philosophy should be informed by the empirical realities on the ground. As several posters have pointed out, it is certainly conceivable that legalisation of bone marrow for sale could have morally and socially undesirable outcomes. I understand that the aforementioned statement carries value judgements, but I ask it be considered in the abstract (e.g. there are undesirable outcomes that some would agree upon, and they could arise with legalisation). This is true regardless of how we believe it should work.

I also apologise for pigeon-holing you into a philosophical framework based on one post, at the time I simply felt the statements in the post smacked of neoliberalism.
 
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If you face this ethics question on the interview trail, and a woman is interviewing you. There might be a possibility that you are being interviewed by LizzyM. The way around this though is if she collaborates with colleagues and gets them to ask this question as well. That would make this post absolutely pointless.
 
I don't think donors should be paid for their blood marrow, but compensated for the time they would have to take off of work. Much like jury duty, or whatever measurement system used to calculate disability/unemployment benefits. A friend donated half of her liver and entire process actually cost her a lot. I believe there is some sort of tax break. Maybe that could be bigger to help compensate donors for their time and sacrifice.
 
I don't think donors should be paid for their blood marrow, but compensated for the time they would have to take off of work. Much like jury duty, or whatever measurement system used to calculate disability/unemployment benefits. A friend donated half of her liver and entire process actually cost her a lot. I believe there is some sort of tax break. Maybe that could be bigger to help compensate donors for their time and sacrifice.

For there to be a tax break, there has to be something worth taxing. I know of a working class woman who donated a kidney. She lost 2 weeks' wages and had to pay out of pocket for health/vision/dental insurance during the time she was off work. It was actually very costly to her and the recipient (a relative outside her household) was not in a position to help out.

Marrow is not quite as involved but it does require several visits and can involve painful injections to prepare for "harvesting". In some ways it is like egg donation and it is legal to pay egg donors.
 
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For there to be a tax break, there has to be something worth taxing. I know of a working class woman who donated a kidney. She lost 2 weeks' wages and had to pay out of pocket for health/vision/dental insurance during the time she was off work. It was actually very costly to her and the recipient (a relative outside her household) was not in a position to help out.

Marrow is not quite as involved but it does require several visits and can involve painful injections to prepare for "harvesting". In some ways it is like egg donation and it is legal to pay egg donors.
Can we know your complete thoughts on this/other ethical medical issues (e.g. Stem cells and genetic engineering)?
 
Can we know your complete thoughts on this/other ethical medical issues (e.g. Stem cells and genetic engineering)?

I think the point of this thread was for people to think for themselves. I'm sure LizzyM is aware that her status as an adcom will give some the incorrect idea that you must agree with her and by, say, recycling her reasoning you could impress all adcoms. "Can you tell us everything you think about everything?" might not be the best way to approach this. You might start by taking issue with, or elaborating on, her comments...
 
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I think the point of this thread was for people to think for themselves. I'm sure LizzyM is aware that her status as an adcom will give some the incorrect idea that you must agree with her and by, say, recycling her reasoning you could impress all adcoms. "Can you tell us everything you think about everything?" might not be the best way to approach this. You might start by taking issue with, or elaborating on, her comments...
Amen.

Can we know your complete thoughts on this/other ethical medical issues (e.g. Stem cells and genetic engineering)?

You might like this web page and the myriad links on a variety of topics in bioethics:
https://depts.washington.edu/bioethx/topics/



As I've been thinking about the film, I've been struck by a "mistake" that the physician made that opened this Pandora's box. Can you identify his error and formulate a plan or personal policy that should be implemented going forward and that would have prevented the moral dilemma that followed?
 
The first little thing was referring to the donor as "she," but I don't think it was wise to leave the recipient's mother alone in his office, especially without a locking file cabinet.
 
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I think the point of this thread was for people to think for themselves. I'm sure LizzyM is aware that her status as an adcom will give some the incorrect idea that you must agree with her and by, say, recycling her reasoning you could impress all adcoms. "Can you tell us everything you think about everything?" might not be the best way to approach this. You might start by taking issue with, or elaborating on, her comments...
Thats true, thing is,, we've seen alot of answers on this topic and it wouldn't be bad to get an experts opinion. But yeah i could have been more specific.

You might like this web page and the myriad links on a variety of topics in bioethics:
Wow thanks, i'll bookmark this and try to go through them!! Yeah i always get in debates about issues like this especially when people's religion and stuff becomes involved. And me being me, i just always want to find answers or the best solutions to trivial things.

As I've been thinking about the film, I've been struck by a "mistake" that the physician made that opened this Pandora's box. Can you identify his error and formulate a plan or personal policy that should be implemented going forward and that would have prevented the moral dilemma that followed?
He basically told her that there was a way to get the marrow still even though its illegal. Then proceeded to leave the office with his desk unlocked. Idk if this violates any HIPA rules but its still borderline sketch.
Maybe implement a rule of not having "sensitive" files next to people involved? idk. I could be wrong though and the mistake is probably something different.
 
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1) there is not a thriving black market for bone marrow or any other organ in the US. In some 3rd world countries maybe but that's not Americas problem.

The U.S. has been identified by the U.C. Berkley's Organ Watch as a major organ importing country, primarily in the form of exchange of organs from citizens of 3rd world countries for payment through organ brokers, who are the primary financial beneficiaries of such schemes. One of these brokers was caught and prosecuted in the U.S. in 2011. This certainly sounds like America's problem to me, as 1) this is another symptom of the tremendous global organ/tissue shortage (what a desperate family will do when a loved one is dying) and 2) the existence of such black markets directly affects the health and financial wellness of U.S. citizens (not to mention the health and productivity of the donors and the ethical problems associated). If you have more information to share about this, I would genuinely appreciate your insight, since I realize that my own experience / education is limited (I'm not a med student).

I realize this is not the same as a black market for bone marrow, but I think the exploitation exemplified by the organ broker schemes is a good example of some of the worst-case-scenarios underlying the hesitation behind legalizing payment for bone marrow.

http://www.bloomberg.com/news/artic...ty-in-first-u-s-organ-trafficking-prosecution

http://www.who.int/bulletin/volumes/85/12/06-039370/en/
 
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He basically told her that there was a way to get the marrow still even though its illegal. Then proceeded to leave the office with his desk unlocked. Idk if this violates any HIPA rules but its still borderline sketch.
Maybe implement a rule of not having "sensitive" files next to people involved?

Definitely, Vladimir7. This seemed so sketch to me that I actually thought we were supposed to think that he was intentionally leaving her alone with Pandora's box. He was aware of the level of her desperation, then left the room (presumably to give her time to privately grieve or recover emotionally) with the file folder invitingly on the desk. He doesn't look like an intern, so we expect him to have the situational awareness not to make this mistake. Ideally, he should have secured the file, but if he needed to leave the file out, he could have invited her to get coffee with him.
 
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Definitely, Vladimir7. This seemed so sketch to me that I actually thought we were supposed to think that he was intentionally leaving her alone with Pandora's box. He was aware of the level of her desperation, then left the room (presumably to give her time to privately grieve or recover emotionally) with the file folder invitingly on the desk. He doesn't look like an intern, so we expect him to have the situational awareness not to make this mistake. Ideally, he should have secured the file, but if he needed to leave the file out, he could have invited her to get coffee with him.

I agree but there was such tension as she looked through the files for the material she wanted and the way it kept cutting back to what the doctor was doing and how close he was to returning to the office and "catching" her made me think that he had not done it deliberately, or perhaps she does not realize that he has done this deliberately and she is crossing such a normative boundary that she's rather freaked out by it.

Of course, the actor playing the doctor was such a weak President in House of Cards that I didn't expect his character to be any stronger in this flick.
 
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For there to be a tax break, there has to be something worth taxing. I know of a working class woman who donated a kidney. She lost 2 weeks' wages and had to pay out of pocket for health/vision/dental insurance during the time she was off work. It was actually very costly to her and the recipient (a relative outside her household) was not in a position to help out.

Marrow is not quite as involved but it does require several visits and can involve painful injections to prepare for "harvesting". In some ways it is like egg donation and it is legal to pay egg donors.

To add to this point, eggs are not even technically replenishable, and it is still legal to compensate their donation. There is sacrifice involved with any kind of donation, and yet most of the discussion up to this point has been concerned with the possible future exploitation of donors if they ARE compensated. While nonprofits like Be The Match/National Marrow Donor Program are not publicly traded and they don't make a profit per se, they still pay salaries and bill providers, and there is nothing prohibiting a hospital from making a profit off of bone marrow donations that NMDP facilitates. Doesn't it make you wonder who we should be worried about being exploited as well as who is actually doing the exploiting?

P.S. That is the strangest looking cat I've ever seen.
 
The U.S. has been identified by the U.C. Berkley's Organ Watch as a major organ importing country, primarily in the form of exchange of organs from citizens of 3rd world countries for payment through organ brokers, who are the primary financial beneficiaries of such schemes. One of these brokers was caught and prosecuted in the U.S. in 2011. This certainly sounds like America's problem to me, as 1) this is another symptom of the tremendous global organ/tissue shortage (what a desperate family will do when a loved one is dying) and 2) the existence of such black markets directly affects the health and financial wellness of U.S. citizens (not to mention the health and productivity of the donors and the ethical problems associated). If you have more information to share about this, I would genuinely appreciate your insight, since I realize that my own experience / education is limited (I'm not a med student).

I realize this is not the same as a black market for bone marrow, but I think the exploitation exemplified by the organ broker schemes is a good example of some of the worst-case-scenarios underlying the hesitation behind legalizing payment for bone marrow.

http://www.bloomberg.com/news/artic...ty-in-first-u-s-organ-trafficking-prosecution

http://www.who.int/bulletin/volumes/85/12/06-039370/en/
V interesting info ty
 
To add to this point, eggs are not even technically replenishable, and it is still legal to compensate their donation.

Eggs are not an "organ" and therefore permissable. Ditto Blood. For some reason bone marrow was classified as an organ. The question now is "should the law be changed to treat bone marrow like blood rather than like a kidney?"
There is sacrifice involved with any kind of donation, and yet most of the discussion up to this point has been concerned with the possible future exploitation of donors if they ARE compensated. While nonprofits like Be The Match/National Marrow Donor Program are not publicly traded and they don't make a profit per se, they still pay salaries and bill providers, and there is nothing prohibiting a hospital from making a profit off of bone marrow donations that NMDP facilitates. Doesn't it make you wonder who we should be worried about being exploited as well as who is actually doing the exploiting?

Donors aren't paid. Everyone else in the harvest and transplant pipeline gets paid. It does make you wonder about exploitation. It is also interesting to note that given the difficulty of finding a match, it is not likely that the same donor would be a match for many different patients or be asked to donate multiple times.

P.S. That is the strangest looking cat I've ever seen.

That's no cat; that's my turtle with a mouthful of goldfish.
 
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Another interesting proposal might be a monetary incentive to be registered as an organ donor after death. Takes away the concept of buying and selling parts of a life, but still has some initial ickiness to it (for me at least) that takes some reasoning through
 
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LOL YAAAAAS. LizzyM liked my comment! This means i'm gonna get into med school and be a doctor.

My life is complete.
 
Eggs are not an "organ" and therefore permissable. Ditto Blood. For some reason bone marrow was classified as an organ. The question now is "should the law be changed to treat bone marrow like blood rather than like a kidney?"
What bearing should arbitrary (or even non-arbitrary) categories like "organ" have on an ethical dilemma like this? Why is the extent of similarity between bone marrow and kidneys relevant here? I would argue that precedent based on other organs is irrelevant when the ethical discussions that led to such precedents are essentially identical to the discussion going on in this thread. I'm not necessarily referencing your post when saying this, but isn't it actually quite lazy to say that bone marrow is similar to other organs so it should be treated like them, or that bone marrow is very different from other organs so it should be treated differently? Why are we to assume that the correct ethical decisions were made about those other organs?

Also, I have a question for those more knowledgeable about the medical logistics of bone marrow transplants than I am: Is it possible for donors to hide medical conditions that could harm the transplant recipient? For example I know that various conditions can be hidden when donating blood (i.e. possibly having contracted malaria, but deciding to not disclose a recent vacation to Honduras), and if there's a financial incentive to donate then donors might hide their conditions in order to be paid. I suppose this could be dealt with by paying blood donors to donate even if they disclose conditions that make their blood unusable, but that might be less realistic with donations of bone marrow or organs which are far more invasive and costly.
 
It shouldn't be illegal in the first place.
A government has one role and one role only; protect an individual's natural rights. Therefore, choosing to give my bone marrow for complement or money is nobody's business.
As for Ethics and morality, government cannot legislate that, not in a free society at least. Ethics cannot exist without morals. Ethics are moral guidelines and morals are relative. In a free society, no one can force moral values on others.
For the sake of debate, where do you think "natural rights" come from? What gives you the impression that there's anything natural at all about human rights? Religious influence aside, they're actually an entirely human construct. And given that rights and ethics are human constructs, who are you to say that it isn't society's (or government's) place to make regulations or legislation regarding ethics and morality? Who cares that morals are relative, if they can be regulated in ways that produce happiness/safety/cooperation/etc which benefit large groups of people?



And @Lucca since we're discussing the term "natural," I have to take issue with the quote in your signature about poverty not being natural. Poverty is very natural; it's only through the accumulation of wealth and excess material that relative poverty becomes "man-made." Poverty is essentially defined as not having easy access to food, clean water, sanitation, education, shelter, etc. Since the beginning of humankind people have been deprived of those things, so how can you believe that poverty is unnatural? If you want to claim that poverty is bad, that's fine and I agree, but it's anything but unnatural.

We clearly seem to disagree on what is and is not natural, so I'd like to hear your thoughts about the following, as well: why do you think it is a right to receive healthcare when you are ill, as you mentioned earlier? Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are unnatural and immoral. Freedom from being tortured. Freedom from your property being stolen. Freedom from unjust imprisonment. Even the "right to life" isn't a right "to" anything at all, it's the freedom from being killed. Disease isn't inherently immoral or unnatural, so it's really quite unrelated to the idea of human rights. If you want to claim that healthcare is more important than certain human rights and should be favored over them, that's fine and I actually think I agree, but it's either disingenuous or illogical to claim that healthcare itself is a right. Humans also have the right to not have things stolen from them, and the "right to healthcare" is essentially the "right" to steal healthcare (i.e. intellectual property, medications, procedures) from those who refuse to offer them for free to those who can't pay. When you begin to fabricate rights like healthcare, you pit different rights against each other (i.e. healthcare vs. property, aka the right to steal healthcare vs. the right to not have the medicine you created stolen from you), which really destroys the supposedly intrinsic inalienability of rights altogether. The second quote in your signature also says that no one should die from a treatable disease. Do you truly believe that? Even from a practical standpoint, do you think there could ever be enough supply to meet that kind of demand? Are we all violating the rights of uncontacted African and South Asian tribes to whom we are not offering modern medicine? Healthcare isn't a right, it's just a wonderful thing that we should try to give to as many people as possible at the highest quality possible within reasonable practicality, simply because it's the moral thing to do. If someone drops their books in the hallway, you should help them pick up the books, not because they have a right to your assistance, but because it's a good thing to do.

I propose that you delete those illogical quotes and replace them with the following:

Although things like slavery and absolute poverty are completely natural, they're terrible and we should try to stop them. -Walloobi

Although healthcare can't be defined as a right, it's a wonderful thing and we should try to provide it to everyone. -Walloobi

Lewis Thomas' punctuation guide should stay as is :)
 
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For the sake of debate, where do you think "natural rights" come from? What gives you the impression that there's anything natural at all about human rights? Religious influence aside, they're actually an entirely human construct. And given that rights and ethics are human constructs, who are you to say that it isn't society's (or government's) place to make regulations or legislation regarding ethics and morality? Who cares that morals are relative, if they can be regulated in ways that produce happiness/safety/cooperation/etc which benefit large groups of people?

And @Lucca since we're discussing the term "natural," I have to take issue with the quote in your signature about poverty not being natural. Poverty is very natural; it's only through the accumulation of wealth and excess material that relative poverty becomes "man-made." Poverty is essentially defined as not having easy access to food, clean water, sanitation, education, shelter, etc. Since the beginning of humankind people have been deprived of those things, so how can you believe that poverty is unnatural? If you want to claim that poverty is bad, that's fine and I agree, but it's anything but unnatural.

We clearly seem to disagree on what is and is not natural, so I'd like to hear your thoughts about the following, as well: why do you think it is a right to receive healthcare when you are ill, as you mentioned earlier? Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are unnatural and immoral. Freedom from being tortured. Freedom from your property being stolen. Freedom from unjust imprisonment. Even the "right to life" isn't a right "to" anything at all, it's the freedom from being killed. Disease isn't inherently immoral or unnatural, so it's really quite unrelated to the idea of human rights. If you want to claim that healthcare is more important than certain human rights and should be favored over them, that's fine and I actually think I agree, but it's either disingenuous or illogical to claim that healthcare itself is a right. Humans also have the right to not have things stolen from them, and the "right to healthcare" is essentially the "right" to steal healthcare (i.e. intellectual property, medications, procedures) from those who refuse to offer them for free to those who can't pay. When you begin to fabricate rights like healthcare, you pit different rights against each other (i.e. healthcare vs. property, aka the right to steal healthcare vs. the right to not have the medicine you created stolen from you), which really destroys the supposedly intrinsic inalienability of rights altogether. The second quote in your signature also says that no one should die from a treatable disease. Do you truly believe that? Even from a practical standpoint, do you think there could ever be enough supply to meet that kind of demand? Are we all violating the rights of uncontacted African and South Asian tribes to whom we are not offering modern medicine? Healthcare isn't a right, it's just a wonderful thing that we should try to give to as many people as possible at the highest quality possible within reasonable practicality, simply because it's the moral thing to do. If someone drops their books in the hallway, you should help them pick up the books, not because they have a right to your assistance, but because it's a good thing to do.

I propose that you delete those illogical quotes and replace them with the following:

Although things like slavery and absolute poverty are completely natural, they're terrible and we should try to stop them. -Walloobi

Although healthcare can't be defined as a right, it's a wonderful thing and we should try to provide it to everyone. -Walloobi

Lewis Thomas' punctuation guide should stay as is :)

Oh thank God someone who actually thinks for himself on this forum! Solid post. Honest to God, probably the best post I've read on SDN so far. I'm not sure if I agree with your post 100%, but I certainly appreciate it.
 
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Even the "right to life" isn't a right "to" anything at all, it's the freedom from being killed.
How deeply do you actually believe this? Is there no duty to rescue?

Eg: I'm hiking with a cellphone and come across someone that has fallen, and is slowly dying in agony in need of medical care.

I think it's wrong to walk away and leave them to die, instead of calling it in.

There is no way to explain why it is wrong using only natural rights, since his rights aren't being violated. I wasn't the one that hurt him. I'm just refraining from doing something nice.

I think that's an incomplete picture. You have a moral requirement to call it in. Natural rights simply doesn't let you build a fleshed out moral framework.
 
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How deeply do you actually believe this? Is there no duty to rescue?

Eg: I'm hiking with a cellphone and come across someone that has fallen, and is slowly dying in agony in need of medical care.

I think it's wrong to walk away and leave them to die, instead of calling it in.

There is no way to explain why it is wrong using only natural rights, since his rights aren't being violated. I wasn't the one that hurt him. I'm just refraining from doing something nice.

I think that's an incomplete picture. You have a moral requirement to call it in. Natural rights simply doesn't let you build a fleshed out moral framework.
Interesting... I would tend to agree.

What about this, though? A lot of people in America shirk the moral responsibility to save others by living in communities with people who, generally, do not need their help. Isn't this wrong as well?

And yet, somehow it doesn't feel as wrong, just as bombing someone doesn't feel as wrong as stabbing them.
 
How deeply do you actually believe this? Is there no duty to rescue?

Eg: I'm hiking with a cellphone and come across someone that has fallen, and is slowly dying in agony in need of medical care.

I think it's wrong to walk away and leave them to die, instead of calling it in.

There is no way to explain why it is wrong using only natural rights, since his rights aren't being violated. I wasn't the one that hurt him. I'm just refraining from doing something nice.

I think that's an incomplete picture. You have a moral requirement to call it in. Natural rights simply doesn't let you build a fleshed out moral framework.
I can't say exactly how deeply I believe this since I'm working through my philosophy on these issues as we speak, but these are my thoughts:

I agree that it's absolutely wrong to walk away and leave them to die. Incredibly immoral and non-human. But rights and morality are different. It would be the moral thing to rescue him, but you wouldn't be violating any rights should you choose not to. Simply increase the physical distance between you and the fallen hiker, and this becomes clear. If you know of a hiker 5 miles away who needs your help, it would still be immoral to not hike over to help him. If he's 20 miles away? You'd have to make a long trip, but it would still be pretty immoral to not hike that far to save his life. If he's 10,000 miles away in Africa, and you had to take a week-long trip and spend thousands of dollars to go save him, I don't think anyone would say you're immoral for not making the trip over there. However, even though the level of immorality changes with convenience and distance, it's not as if his innate human rights have changed in any of these cases. If you think he has the right to life and you have a duty to rescue him, and that duty/rights and morality are inseparable, then it would be equally immoral to not save him in all cases. But as we speak, you're not visiting African tribes to provide basic healthcare to those who are dying from treatable causes, and no one would say you're violating their rights to life, because you're not actually doing anything immoral to them, you're simply not doing anything moral for them.

Again, rights "to" things are really freedoms "from" things. You're violating someone's rights if you steal their property. However, if someone has no property, you're not violating their rights should you choose to not give them your property for free. Similarly, if you actively killed the hiker, you're violating his rights, but should you (horribly) choose to not save him, you're not really violating his rights in any rigorous definition of the term. Maybe this is all just semantics.
 
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Interesting... I would tend to agree.

What about this, though? A lot of people in America shirk the moral responsibility to save others by living in communities with people who, generally, do not need their help. Isn't this wrong as well?

And yet, somehow it doesn't feel as wrong, just as bombing someone doesn't feel as wrong as stabbing them.
Well, the reason I like the hurt hiker example is that there's no cost or difficulty for rescuing. Not quite the same to me as staying here instead of joining Sans Frontieres, which demands a lot.
 
I can't say exactly how deeply I believe this since I'm working through my philosophy on these issues as we speak, but these are my thoughts:

I agree that it's absolutely wrong to walk away and leave them to die. Incredibly immoral and non-human. But rights and morality are different. It would be the moral thing to rescue him, but you wouldn't be violating any rights should you choose not to. Simply increase the physical distance between you and the fallen hiker, and this becomes clear. If you know of a hiker 5 miles away who needs your help, it would still be immoral to not hike over to help him. If he's 20 miles away? You'd have to make a long trip, but it would still be pretty immoral to not hike that far to save his life. If he's 10,000 miles away in Africa, and you had to take a week-long trip and spend thousands of dollars to go save him, I don't think anyone would say you're immoral for not making the trip over there. However, even though the level of immorality changes with convenience and distance, it's not as if his innate human rights have changed in any of these cases. If you think he has the right to life and you have a duty to rescue him, and that duty/rights and morality are inseparable, then it would be equally immoral to not save him in all cases. But as we speak, you're not visiting African tribes to provide basic healthcare to those who are dying from treatable causes, and no one would say you're violating their rights to life, because you're not actually doing anything immoral to them, you're simply not doing anything moral for them.

Again, rights "to" things are really freedoms "from" things. You're violating someone's rights if you steal their property. However, if someone has no property, you're not violating their rights should you choose to not give them your property for free. Similarly, if you actively killed the hiker, you're violating his rights, but should you (horribly) choose to not save him, you're not really violating his rights in any rigorous definition of the term. Maybe this is all just semantics.
See my other response. It's a lame way out to say "yeah but what if it was really costly and dangerous to save them, now what??" Same logic applies in reverse. Do you refrain from a military action that ends a war, because there's likely to be civilian casualty in the process, and you can't violate their right to life? Of course not. The thought experiment is set up as a simple balance of no cost, huge moral reward for a reason. If you're like me, you think the injured hiker does have a RIGHT to have the ambulance called, but its because it costs them nothing.
 
Well, the reason I like the hurt hiker example is that there's no cost or difficulty for rescuing. Not quite the same to me as staying here instead of joining Sans Frontieres, which demands a lot.
See my other response. It's a lame way out to say "yeah but what if it was really costly and dangerous to save them, now what??" Same logic applies in reverse. Do you refrain from a military action that ends a war, because there's likely to be civilian casualty in the process, and you can't violate their right to life? Of course not. The thought experiment is set up as a simple balance of no cost, huge moral reward for a reason. If you're like me, you think the injured hiker does have a RIGHT to have the ambulance called, but its because it costs them nothing.
If a billionaire doesn't spare 5 bucks for a homeless person, is he violating their rights? I wouldn't necessarily even consider it immoral if he kept the $5 to himself. Virtually no cost to the billionaire, but as long as he doesn't steal anything from the homeless person, he isn't violating their rights.
 
If a billionaire doesn't spare 5 bucks for a homeless person, is he violating their rights? I wouldn't necessarily even consider it immoral if he kept the $5 to himself. Virtually no cost to the billionaire, but as long as he doesn't steal anything from the homeless person, he isn't violating their rights.
To me, a billionaire sitting on his money watching someone starve, is not morally different from them taking someone's food and watching them starve, correct. Both are the same balance sheet of zero cost vs a life. Once you agree to pull that lever and redirect the trolly, arriving at initially odd statements like that is unavoidable !
 
See my other response. It's a lame way out to say "yeah but what if it was really costly and dangerous to save them, now what??" Same logic applies in reverse. Do you refrain from a military action that ends a war, because there's likely to be civilian casualty in the process, and you can't violate their right to life? Of course not. The thought experiment is set up as a simple balance of no cost, huge moral reward for a reason. If you're like me, you think the injured hiker does have a RIGHT to have the ambulance called, but its because it costs them nothing.
No, because even though you're violating the civilian's rights, there are more important things than human rights. Just like providing healthcare is more important than protecting the right to property. If you can steal one person's formula for a medication, and you can save millions in doing so, you're violating their property rights but it's for a more moral cause. Just because it's more moral to save the millions of people doesn't make healthcare a right. That's all I'm trying to say: rights and morality are often at odds, and morality should sometimes supersede rights.
 
To me, a billionaire sitting on his money watching someone starve, is not morally different from them taking someone's food and watching them starve, correct. Both are the same balance sheet of zero cost vs a life. Once you agree to pull that lever and redirect the trolly, arriving at initially odd statements like that is unavoidable !
This just leads to a discussion of practicality. How much do you take from the billionaire? Is anyone with a BMW essentially murdering the starving children in Africa who they could have bought food for? No. When you extend your logic here on a large scale, you end up with communism. If you want to admit that communism is the only moral form of government, feel free to make that claim and I'll respect it, but I doubt that's your belief and it simply hasn't proved to work throughout the course of history.
 
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There are really no compelling reasons to not establish a proper market for the sale of tissue/organs. The most prevailing arguments are that it somehow "commodifies life" or "desecrates the human body," which carry no ethical weight (at least for me). The market would need to be set up carefully by economists, of course. Currently, the government's avoidance of establishing a marrow price means the legal price = $0. Because the price is much lower than the implicit equilibrium market price, demand>>>supply, and the black market thrives. If a legal price were to be established, however, many seem to worry that it would rise so high that only the very rich could afford it. This hasn't happened with food, for example, which many poor people cannot afford. Instead of banning the market for food, we have found ways around by subsidizing the poor with food stamps. I think donors should also be required to pass health tests and have a certain baseline income, to ensure the poor/sick are not exploited. The knee-jerk avoidance of a rational, economic approach to this problem is killing so many people unnecessarily, and it's time to start thinking clearly.

Where does one find this bone marrow black market and how much does it pay? Asking for a friend.
 
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This just leads to a discussion of practicality. How much do you take from the billionaire? Is anyone with a BMW essentially murdering the starving children in Africa who they could have bought food for? No. When you extend your logic here on a large scale, you end up with communism. If you want to admit that communism is the only moral form of government, feel free to make that claim and I'll respect it, but I doubt that's your belief and it simply hasn't proved to work throughout the course of history.
Oh I absolutely agree with you it doesn't expand well to expect everyone to buy into it and behave unselfishly.

Just like to point out to people that they rarely believe, deep down, in pure natural rights reasoning. If the injured hiker has a right to your effortless rescue, if a civilian dying in a strike that knocks out people perpetrating genocide is acceptable collateral...then the rights arguments that people often use are just a great way to set up some decent guidelines, and not really a good ethical framework
 
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For the sake of debate, where do you think "natural rights" come from? What gives you the impression that there's anything natural at all about human rights? Religious influence aside, they're actually an entirely human construct. And given that rights and ethics are human constructs, who are you to say that it isn't society's (or government's) place to make regulations or legislation regarding ethics and morality? Who cares that morals are relative, if they can be regulated in ways that produce happiness/safety/cooperation/etc which benefit large groups of people?



And @Lucca since we're discussing the term "natural," I have to take issue with the quote in your signature about poverty not being natural. Poverty is very natural; it's only through the accumulation of wealth and excess material that relative poverty becomes "man-made." Poverty is essentially defined as not having easy access to food, clean water, sanitation, education, shelter, etc. Since the beginning of humankind people have been deprived of those things, so how can you believe that poverty is unnatural? If you want to claim that poverty is bad, that's fine and I agree, but it's anything but unnatural.

We clearly seem to disagree on what is and is not natural, so I'd like to hear your thoughts about the following, as well: why do you think it is a right to receive healthcare when you are ill, as you mentioned earlier? Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are unnatural and immoral. Freedom from being tortured. Freedom from your property being stolen. Freedom from unjust imprisonment. Even the "right to life" isn't a right "to" anything at all, it's the freedom from being killed. Disease isn't inherently immoral or unnatural, so it's really quite unrelated to the idea of human rights. If you want to claim that healthcare is more important than certain human rights and should be favored over them, that's fine and I actually think I agree, but it's either disingenuous or illogical to claim that healthcare itself is a right. Humans also have the right to not have things stolen from them, and the "right to healthcare" is essentially the "right" to steal healthcare (i.e. intellectual property, medications, procedures) from those who refuse to offer them for free to those who can't pay. When you begin to fabricate rights like healthcare, you pit different rights against each other (i.e. healthcare vs. property, aka the right to steal healthcare vs. the right to not have the medicine you created stolen from you), which really destroys the supposedly intrinsic inalienability of rights altogether. The second quote in your signature also says that no one should die from a treatable disease. Do you truly believe that? Even from a practical standpoint, do you think there could ever be enough supply to meet that kind of demand? Are we all violating the rights of uncontacted African and South Asian tribes to whom we are not offering modern medicine? Healthcare isn't a right, it's just a wonderful thing that we should try to give to as many people as possible at the highest quality possible within reasonable practicality, simply because it's the moral thing to do. If someone drops their books in the hallway, you should help them pick up the books, not because they have a right to your assistance, but because it's a good thing to do.

I propose that you delete those illogical quotes and replace them with the following:

Although things like slavery and absolute poverty are completely natural, they're terrible and we should try to stop them. -Walloobi

Although healthcare can't be defined as a right, it's a wonderful thing and we should try to provide it to everyone. -Walloobi

Lewis Thomas' punctuation guide should stay as is :)

I think these are good questions, so I'll try to answer them carefully.

First, lets try to be clear about how we use "natural". You seem to mean "natural" as in "observable in nature absent of willful intervention"; i.e, a finite number of resources and ab initio inequality result in poverty "naturally" in the sense that were humans just animals out in the world, poverty would be a natural consequence. If that is what you mean, I agree. In fact, one could argue that a "natural" state by this definition would be almost constant poverty since 100% of existence would be devoted to essentially just meeting basic needs for survival, and, as you define it, poverty is the material absence of those needs. If you mean that poverty is natural simply because it is a historical fact that it has always existed, then I don't agree and I don't really understand how "natural" actually works in that context outside of being a poor synonym for identifying an observation about reality.

Mandela is not trying to make a rigorous argument here. He is trying to highlight that poverty in our modern society has not come about as a result of a law of nature. It is not because there are finite resources that poverty exists, it is because the distribution of the resources that are available is unequal that poverty exists. He is also not just referring to relative poverty which means that some have a lot less than others, he is talking about the type of poverty everyone actually cares about, namely absolute poverty which means you do not have access to the basic needs of survival. If you live in a society with sufficient resources to eliminate absolute poverty then that poverty is not "natural" but is, in fact, man made because it is by human intervention and design that resources are not distributed in such a way that absolute poverty is eliminated; as long as it is a fact that sufficient resources exist and they continue to be distributed inequitably then it is a fact that any absolute poverty within that society is sustained only by human intervention and, as Nelson Mandela claims, it could be undone by human intervention, in particular, by redistributing the materials necessary to eliminate poverty. Whether or not you think those resources ought to be redistributed, or whether you differ on how they should be redistributed, is a totally separate argument, however, I do not think there is any arguing with the claim that in a rich society absolute poverty is entirely made and maintained by human intervention. If absolute poverty were indeed "natural" in the sense that it is a result of a law of nature then there would be nothing at all anyone could do to alleviate it. It would be like trying to stop gravity or charge repulsion or anything like that. Describing poverty as "natural" in the sense I previously described, "observable in nature absent of willful intervention" (note how this is not the same as the previous definition, a law of nature would be observable in spite of any willful intervention because it is constant), has no value to the actual substance of Mandela's comment which is "we can do something about poverty, so let's do it" so using that definition to argue that his comment is false is just a straw man. In spite of these semantics, I will stick with Mandela's comment. I agree with the spirit of it, with the thrust of what it proposes, and I like the man as a general symbol.

As an aside, slavery is not "completely natural" as your derivation of Mandela's comment state. Not in any sense of the word natural does the natural produce slavery.

Before I move on to your comments about rights, I'll quickly address your iteration of the Paul Farmer quote in that, namely, I do not think it differs in any way other than the literal wording. He specifically states he cannot show healthcare is a human right, but then he makes the assertion that he thinks people shouldn't die of treatable illness. For an illness to be treatable, it is presupposed the means exist with which to treat it. Trying to get adequate healthcare access to everyone we can means using the means that exist to do so or creating the means to do so where they do not exist. He is not making the argument specifically in this quote that healthcare is a human right, although I am absolutely sure that if you asked him he would argue in the affirmative. I'll make my argument below.

"Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are unnatural and immoral."

You have not had the opportunity to reply to what you meant by "natural" so I will leave out the "unnatural" bit and take the rest of the quote. I will revisit it once you have the opportunity to clarify but I think the rest of the argument will still be relevant.

"Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are immoral."

This is one way to define negative rights. Like the example you give, if you have a right to life then I have a both a negative duty not to kill you and a positive duty to prevent others from doing so, otherwise this right can be violated. This statement presupposes that there is no such thing as positive rights. A positive right is a right that can only be fulfilled if it is provided. For example, according to the Bill of Rights you have a right to a fair and speedy trial. This right must be fulfilled to comply with the law and indeed it can only be fulfilled if it is provided for you. Again there are positive and negative duties; I must provide the fair and speedy trial and prevent others from not providing the fair and speedy trial when a trial is due. Etc., etc., etc. for any other number of things universally agreed upon to be rights.

Moving on.

"Disease isn't inherently immoral or unnatural, so it's really quite unrelated to the idea of human rights."

I think I know what you mean by natural here and I completely agree. It would be absurd to argue that "disease" is moral or immoral. It doesn't even begin to make sense and it is unrelated to the idea of human rights. However, healthcare as a human right does not mean "the right to be free of disease". It is the right to receive available interventions to prevent or alleviate human suffering as a result of disease. Furthermore, it is a positive right. It can only be fulfilled if it is provided. Therefore, I have a duty to ensure interventions are provided to prevent or alleviate that suffering and a duty to ensure it is not withheld in the same fashion we might ensure a fair and speedy trial and prevent one from being withheld. To be clear, the moral question does not lie in having or not having any particular disease (treatable or not), the moral question is whether given preventable and soluble human suffering we have a duty to prevent and alleviate it. If we do, then healthcare is a human right. If we don't, then it isn't. That's the argument to be had. It's a difficult argument, but I think in your original criticism you missed it. Of course when you enshrine a new right you might obtain conflicts between existing rights. You can elucidate and solve those conflicts, their mere existence does not mean that the right does not exist. In fact, an emergent conflict between an existing right and a "newly formulated" right could illuminate structural injustices and failures in the framework of rights currently accepted. Paul Farmer's quote essentially says, "Yah there's a tough argument to be had here, but let me skip to the point and say that we can do something about treatable diseases, namely treat them, so we should."

"The second quote in your signature also says that no one should die from a treatable disease. Do you truly believe that? Even from a practical standpoint, do you think there could ever be enough supply to meet that kind of demand? Are we all violating the rights of uncontacted African and South Asian tribes to whom we are not offering modern medicine?"

Of course I don't believe anyone should die from treatable disease. It's like asking "do you like good things and dislike bad things?" Why should anyone die from a treatable disease? Of course the word treatable implies we have the means to treat a disease. If I haven't contacted some tribe in a remote part of the world, how the hell am I supposed to obtain or mobilize the resources to treat whatever disease exists in the tribe? If you can do something about a disease and do not then you are acting immorally in my opinion. You might then say, "Well then, the whole world is immoral all of the time!" Duh, of course it is. Any worldview which takes as a given that the world is a moral place all of the time for everyone is making some very, very egregious concessions about reality. The point is to say "we can do better", imagine how that is the case or how to get there, and then do it. People's rights are in fact being violated all of the time, everywhere, all over the world. This doesn't mean those rights dont exist....

Questions about how "practical" something is are harder because it depends on how far you are willing to go. You probably can't "practically" meet the healthcare need in Haiti with Haiti's resources, but that presupposes that the underlying structure of how many resources are where and how those resources are delivered or accessed is completely static. These are questions about tactics, but the moral foundation is unshake, nobody *should* die of a treatable disease. People do and will continue to do so, most likely forever. The mistake is in doing nothing about it, which you imply with your quote, and, frankly, which Paul Farmer implies with his even if all three of us might disagree on how to do so or to what extent.

"Humans also have the right to not have things stolen from them, and the "right to healthcare" is essentially the "right" to steal healthcare (i.e. intellectual property, medications, procedures) from those who refuse to offer them for free to those who can't pay"

I'm going to quickly address this because this is the central ideological argument against the concept of "healthcare as a human right"
This is begging the question. You presuppose that the right to healthcare is the right to steal healthcare. It assumes healthcare is a thing to be stolen and you define it as IP, medications, and procedures. I don't know how healthcare is IP, maybe you could clear that up for me, but I don't think we are giving away patents to patients every time we give them a prescription so I'm going to go ahead and use "medications and procedures" instead until you clarify. "Medications and procedures" are not healthcare. Healthcare, as I explained above, is the intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering. Medications and procedures are some means of intervention, but they are not healthcare itself. You can't "steal" healthcare. To have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate and to ensure appropriate interventions are not withheld. You don't "steal" that. Take the universally accepted right to legal representation in the court of law. Are you "stealing" from the attorney because you have a right to their service? No, you are not. The service might be free to you but the attorney is compensated. Furthermore, the attorney is freely giving their service (they chose to become an attorney, and furthermore a public servant) and an implication of their role is their duty to certain professional obligations which include protecting your right to representation in the court of law. Similarly, in a scenario where it is given healthcare is protected as a human right, you are not "stealing" from a physician. The physician is still compensated, even if the service might be free to you, and the service is freely given (the physician chose to become one, with the knowledge of the service role and their professional obligations).

Let's take the weaker case, which I think is irrelevant, anyway; namely, where the means of intervention are actually healthcare itself: medications and procedures = healthcare. The medications are not stolen, they are still paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service, and neither are the procedures. Given that healthcare is a human right, you have a duty to receive them and in order to not infringe upon the medication manufacturer's or procedure dispenser's rights they are compensated. Nothing is stolen from anyone.
 
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btw I think the only person that ever tried to make the argument that "natural" rights were somehow *literally* from nature was John Stuart Mill and he immediately conceded afterwards that "but this is basically BS lol, but this is what I'm going to use as a base for what we should consider "good" anyways". Everyone else either just says, "They are from God, pls just leave me alone and stop writing me letters" or "I can argue that these rights in particular should be for everyone"
 
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I don't want to interrupt the valuable philosophical discourse going on above, but, Lucca, have you heard about Objectivism or Ayn Rand?
 
I think these are good questions, so I'll try to answer them carefully.

First, lets try to be clear about how we use "natural". You seem to mean "natural" as in "observable in nature absent of willful intervention"; i.e, a finite number of resources and ab initio inequality result in poverty "naturally" in the sense that were humans just animals out in the world, poverty would be a natural consequence. If that is what you mean, I agree. In fact, one could argue that a "natural" state by this definition would be almost constant poverty since 100% of existence would be devoted to essentially just meeting basic needs for survival, and, as you define it, poverty is the material absence of those needs. If you mean that poverty is natural simply because it is a historical fact that it has always existed, then I don't agree and I don't really understand how "natural" actually works in that context outside of being a poor synonym for identifying an observation about reality.

Mandela is not trying to make a rigorous argument here. He is trying to highlight that poverty in our modern society has not come about as a result of a law of nature. It is not because there are finite resources that poverty exists, it is because the distribution of the resources that are available is unequal that poverty exists. He is also not just referring to relative poverty which means that some have a lot less than others, he is talking about the type of poverty everyone actually cares about, namely absolute poverty which means you do not have access to the basic needs of survival. If you live in a society with sufficient resources to eliminate absolute poverty then that poverty is not "natural" but is, in fact, man made because it is by human intervention and design that resources are not distributed in such a way that absolute poverty is eliminated; as long as it is a fact that sufficient resources exist and they continue to be distributed inequitably then it is a fact that any absolute poverty within that society is sustained only by human intervention and, as Nelson Mandela claims, it could be undone by human intervention, in particular, by redistributing the materials necessary to eliminate poverty. Whether or not you think those resources ought to be redistributed, or whether you differ on how they should be redistributed, is a totally separate argument, however, I do not think there is any arguing with the claim that in a rich society absolute poverty is entirely made and maintained by human intervention. If absolute poverty were indeed "natural" in the sense that it is a result of a law of nature then there would be nothing at all anyone could do to alleviate it. It would be like trying to stop gravity or charge repulsion or anything like that. Describing poverty as "natural" in the sense I previously described, "observable in nature absent of willful intervention" (note how this is not the same as the previous definition, a law of nature would be observable in spite of any willful intervention because it is constant), has no value to the actual substance of Mandela's comment which is "we can do something about poverty, so let's do it" so using that definition to argue that his comment is false is just a straw man. In spite of these semantics, I will stick with Mandela's comment. I agree with the spirit of it, with the thrust of what it proposes, and I like the man as a general symbol.

As an aside, slavery is not "completely natural" as your derivation of Mandela's comment state. Not in any sense of the word natural does the natural produce slavery.

Before I move on to your comments about rights, I'll quickly address your iteration of the Paul Farmer quote in that, namely, I do not think it differs in any way other than the literal wording. He specifically states he cannot show healthcare is a human right, but then he makes the assertion that he thinks people shouldn't die of treatable illness. For an illness to be treatable, it is presupposed the means exist with which to treat it. Trying to get adequate healthcare access to everyone we can means using the means that exist to do so or creating the means to do so where they do not exist. He is not making the argument specifically in this quote that healthcare is a human right, although I am absolutely sure that if you asked him he would argue in the affirmative. I'll make my argument below.

"Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are unnatural and immoral."

You have not had the opportunity to reply to what you meant by "natural" so I will leave out the "unnatural" bit and take the rest of the quote. I will revisit it once you have the opportunity to clarify but I think the rest of the argument will still be relevant.

"Rights are actually freedoms from things being done to you that are immoral."

This is one way to define negative rights. Like the example you give, if you have a right to life then I have a both a negative duty not to kill you and a positive duty to prevent others from doing so, otherwise this right can be violated. This statement presupposes that there is no such thing as positive rights. A positive right is a right that can only be fulfilled if it is provided. For example, according to the Bill of Rights you have a right to a fair and speedy trial. This right must be fulfilled to comply with the law and indeed it can only be fulfilled if it is provided for you. Again there are positive and negative duties; I must provide the fair and speedy trial and prevent others from not providing the fair and speedy trial when a trial is due. Etc., etc., etc. for any other number of things universally agreed upon to be rights.

Moving on.

"Disease isn't inherently immoral or unnatural, so it's really quite unrelated to the idea of human rights."

I think I know what you mean by natural here and I completely agree. It would be absurd to argue that "disease" is moral or immoral. It doesn't even begin to make sense and it is unrelated to the idea of human rights. However, healthcare as a human right does not mean "the right to be free of disease". It is the right to receive available interventions to prevent or alleviate human suffering as a result of disease. Furthermore, it is a positive right. It can only be fulfilled if it is provided. Therefore, I have a duty to ensure interventions are provided to prevent or alleviate that suffering and a duty to ensure it is not withheld in the same fashion we might ensure a fair and speedy trial and prevent one from being withheld. To be clear, the moral question does not lie in having or not having any particular disease (treatable or not), the moral question is whether given preventable and soluble human suffering we have a duty to prevent and alleviate it. If we do, then healthcare is a human right. If we don't, then it isn't. That's the argument to be had. It's a difficult argument, but I think in your original criticism you missed it. Of course when you enshrine a new right you might obtain conflicts between existing rights. You can elucidate and solve those conflicts, their mere existence does not mean that the right does not exist. In fact, an emergent conflict between an existing right and a "newly formulated" right could illuminate structural injustices and failures in the framework of rights currently accepted. Paul Farmer's quote essentially says, "Yah there's a tough argument to be had here, but let me skip to the point and say that we can do something about treatable diseases, namely treat them, so we should."

"The second quote in your signature also says that no one should die from a treatable disease. Do you truly believe that? Even from a practical standpoint, do you think there could ever be enough supply to meet that kind of demand? Are we all violating the rights of uncontacted African and South Asian tribes to whom we are not offering modern medicine?"

Of course I don't believe anyone should die from treatable disease. It's like asking "do you like good things and dislike bad things?" Why should anyone die from a treatable disease? Of course the word treatable implies we have the means to treat a disease. If I haven't contacted some tribe in a remote part of the world, how the hell am I supposed to obtain or mobilize the resources to treat whatever disease exists in the tribe? If you can do something about a disease and do not then you are acting immorally in my opinion. You might then say, "Well then, the whole world is immoral all of the time!" Duh, of course it is. Any worldview which takes as a given that the world is a moral place all of the time for everyone is making some very, very egregious concessions about reality. The point is to say "we can do better", imagine how that is the case or how to get there, and then do it. People's rights are in fact being violated all of the time, everywhere, all over the world. This doesn't mean those rights dont exist....

"Humans also have the right to not have things stolen from them, and the "right to healthcare" is essentially the "right" to steal healthcare (i.e. intellectual property, medications, procedures) from those who refuse to offer them for free to those who can't pay"

I'm going to quickly address this because this is the central ideological argument against the concept of "healthcare as a human right"
This is begging the question. You presuppose that the right to healthcare is the right to steal healthcare. It assumes healthcare is a thing to be stolen and you define it as IP, medications, and procedures. I don't know how healthcare is IP, maybe you could clear that up for me, but I don't think we are giving away patents to patients every time we give them a prescription so I'm going to go ahead and use "medications and procedures" instead until you clarify. "Medications and procedures" are not healthcare. Healthcare, as I explained above, is the intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering. Medications and procedures are some means of intervention, but they are not healthcare itself. You can't "steal" healthcare. To have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate and to ensure appropriate interventions are not withheld. You don't "steal" that. Take the universally accepted right to legal representation in the court of law. Are you "stealing" from the attorney because you have a right to their service? No, you are not. The service might be free to you but the attorney is compensated. Furthermore, the attorney is freely giving their service (they chose to become an attorney, and furthermore a public servant) and an implication of their role is their duty to certain professional obligations which include protecting your right to representation in the court of law. Similarly, in a scenario where it is given healthcare is protected as a human right, you are not "stealing" from a physician. The physician is still compensated, even if the service might be free to you, and the service is freely given (the physician chose to become one, with the knowledge of the service role and their professional obligations).

Let's take the weaker case, which I think is irrelevant, anyway; namely, where the means of intervention are actually healthcare itself: medications and procedures = healthcare. The medications are not stolen, they are still paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service, and neither are the procedures. Given that healthcare is a human right, you have a duty to receive them and in order to not infringe upon the medication manufacturer's or procedure dispenser's rights they are compensated. Nothing is stolen from anyone.

"First, lets try to be clear about how we use "natural". You seem to mean "natural" as in "observable in nature absent of willful intervention"; i.e, a finite number of resources and ab initio inequality result in poverty "naturally" in the sense that were humans just animals out in the world, poverty would be a natural consequence. If that is what you mean, I agree. In fact, one could argue that a "natural" state by this definition would be almost constant poverty since 100% of existence would be devoted to essentially just meeting basic needs for survival, and, as you define it, poverty is the material absence of those needs. If you mean that poverty is natural simply because it is a historical fact that it has always existed, then I don't agree and I don't really understand how "natural" actually works in that context outside of being a poor synonym for identifying an observation about reality."

Yes, by "natural" I mean that poverty is the default state of humankind in nature, at least until relatively recently when enormous developments have been made. I mean this in the same way that you could consider chimpanzees to be impoverished in that they do not benefit from any advancements in sanitation, food production, medication, etc. Humans have lived in absolute poverty for thousands of years, and it is simply incorrect to claim that such poverty is unnatural now that some have risen above poverty. Given my working definition of the term "natural," it seems that we agree here (there's not much to disagree on, really).

Mandela is not trying to make a rigorous argument here. He is trying to highlight that poverty in our modern society has not come about as a result of a law of nature. It is not because there are finite resources that poverty exists, it is because the distribution of the resources that are available is unequal that poverty exists. He is also not just referring to relative poverty which means that some have a lot less than others, he is talking about the type of poverty everyone actually cares about, namely absolute poverty which means you do not have access to the basic needs of survival. If you live in a society with sufficient resources to eliminate absolute poverty then that poverty is not "natural" but is, in fact, man made because it is by human intervention and design that resources are not distributed in such a way that absolute poverty is eliminated; as long as it is a fact that sufficient resources exist and they continue to be distributed inequitably then it is a fact that any absolute poverty within that society is sustained only by human intervention and, as Nelson Mandela claims, it could be undone by human intervention, in particular, by redistributing the materials necessary to eliminate poverty. Whether or not you think those resources ought to be redistributed, or whether you differ on how they should be redistributed, is a totally separate argument, however, I do not think there is any arguing with the claim that in a rich society absolute poverty is entirely made and maintained by human intervention. If absolute poverty were indeed "natural" in the sense that it is a result of a law of nature then there would be nothing at all anyone could do to alleviate it. It would be like trying to stop gravity or charge repulsion or anything like that. Describing poverty as "natural" in the sense I previously described, "observable in nature absent of willful intervention" (note how this is not the same as the previous definition, a law of nature would be observable in spite of any willful intervention because it is constant), has no value to the actual substance of Mandela's comment which is "we can do something about poverty, so let's do it" so using that definition to argue that his comment is false is just a straw man. In spite of these semantics, I will stick with Mandela's comment. I agree with the spirit of it, with the thrust of what it proposes, and I like the man as a general symbol.

We disagree on some points here. Regardless of the reasons for an individual living in absolute poverty, whether that be unequal distribution of plentiful resources or a lack of resources altogether, the impoverished individual is living the same quality of life. Take the uncontacted Sentinelese people, for example. They have been living a hunter-gatherer lifestyle in absolute poverty for hundreds or even thousands of years. This is their natural quality of life. Great societies have risen up around that tribe over the past few hundred years, obtaining enormous wealth and technological advancements which made it easy to obtain food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare. The quality of life for the Sentinelese people has not changed over that time. The surrounding societies could have provided them with food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare, but they did not. I don't think that's immoral. They're living in absolute poverty, but such poverty is not man-made just because surrounding peoples could have offered luxury and decided not to. It is still nature-made. We can easily apply this same reasoning to those who are in absolute poverty within successful societies, and we find the same conclusion even though its emotional impact seems stronger. A child who is born to an absolutely impoverished family in America is no worse off than if the same child were born to an absolutely impoverished family in a society without the resources of America. The child's quality of life is the same in both cases (more or less), and it doesn't make sense to say that the child's poverty in the first case is man-made simply because individuals in close proximity to the child have wealth. The poverty is nature-made in both cases, but it just seems more extreme in the first case because it is compared to luxurious lives of nearby individuals. This is not to say that those around an impoverished child in America shouldn't offer support. They should, from any moral viewpoint. It is just to say that it's disingenuous to claim that the child's poverty is suddenly man-made since nearby people have wealth and resources, when such poverty has been occurring for thousands of years. Similarly, sunburns did not suddenly become man-made once sunscreen was developed. Headaches did not suddenly become man-made once ibuprofen was developed. Stubbing your toe didn't become man-made when shoes were developed. In the same way, poverty didn't become man-made once societies accumulated wealth and plentiful resources. Again, note that I'm only taking issue with your repeated claim that poverty is man-made in certain cases, not your belief that allowing poverty can be very immoral.

You can't say that it's by human intervention that resources are not distributed in a way that eliminates poverty. It's precisely by the lack of human intervention that poverty is not eliminated, and most would agree - at least on an emotional level - that passive failure to do moral deeds is not as bad as active immoral deeds. This is why we don't charge rich people with murder for allowing the poor to starve, but we severely punish those who actively take a single life in an active manner.

All that said, I quite like the spirit of Mandela's comment too, and agree that we should try to fix issues of poverty. I don't think anyone would disagree with you there.

As an aside, slavery is not "completely natural" as your derivation of Mandela's comment state. Not in any sense of the word natural does the natural produce slavery.

If chimps had the intellectual capacity to enslave other chimps, would they do so? If fish could enslave other fish, would they do so? Of course. As evolution is such a purely selfish and amoral process, any group of animals that has the intellectual and physical ability to exploit others will do so if it offers some benefit. This is why slavery can be traced back almost as far back as societies can be traced back. Slavery is natural in the sense that exploitation is natural. However, I suppose we could then say that literally everything about humans is natural since evolutionary processes have shaped everything about us, so I see your point and this topic is beside the issue.

This is one way to define negative rights. Like the example you give, if you have a right to life then I have a both a negative duty not to kill you and a positive duty to prevent others from doing so, otherwise this right can be violated. This statement presupposes that there is no such thing as positive rights. A positive right is a right that can only be fulfilled if it is provided. For example, according to the Bill of Rights you have a right to a fair and speedy trial. This right must be fulfilled to comply with the law and indeed it can only be fulfilled if it is provided for you. Again there are positive and negative duties; I must provide the fair and speedy trial and prevent others from not providing the fair and speedy trial when a trial is due. Etc., etc., etc. for any other number of things universally agreed upon to be rights.

Moving on.


I think I know what you mean by natural here and I completely agree. It would be absurd to argue that "disease" is moral or immoral. It doesn't even begin to make sense and it is unrelated to the idea of human rights. However, healthcare as a human right does not mean "the right to be free of disease". It is the right to receive available interventions to prevent or alleviate human suffering as a result of disease. Furthermore, it is a positive right. It can only be fulfilled if it is provided. Therefore, I have a duty to ensure interventions are provided to prevent or alleviate that suffering and a duty to ensure it is not withheld in the same fashion we might ensure a fair and speedy trial and prevent one from being withheld. To be clear, the moral question does not lie in having or not having any particular disease (treatable or not), the moral question is whether given preventable and soluble human suffering we have a duty to prevent and alleviate it. If we do, then healthcare is a human right. If we don't, then it isn't. That's the argument to be had. It's a difficult argument, but I think in your original criticism you missed it. Of course when you enshrine a new right you might obtain conflicts between existing rights. You can elucidate and solve those conflicts, their mere existence does not mean that the right does not exist. In fact, an emergent conflict between an existing right and a "newly formulated" right could illuminate structural injustices and failures in the framework of rights currently accepted. Paul Farmer's quote essentially says, "Yah there's a tough argument to be had here, but let me skip to the point and say that we can do something about treatable diseases, namely treat them, so we should."

The trouble is that positive rights infringe on negative rights (and sometimes other positive rights), while negative rights don't tend to infringe on any other rights. This is why first-generation rights are so widely accepted as inalienable, while second-generation and third-generation rights (which are generally positive rights) are far more debatable and controversial. Using your example, I certainly have a duty to respect your negative right to not be killed, by not killing you. That is an indisputable negative duty of mine. However, I believe you are begging the question when you say I have the positive duty to prevent others from killing you. This is the entire question we are discussing. Do I truly have a duty to stop others from killing you? At what cost to myself? At what level of risk to my own well-being must I intervene in a dangerous and violent situation? Forcing me to carry out my supposed positive duty of ensuring your safety directly infringes on my negative right to not be harmed myself.

To draw the parallel, I have a negative duty to not steal from others, because people have the negative right to not be stolen from. Assuming a man has some medication that he doesn't need, which I do need to stay alive, and there is no other way to obtain the medication, he still has the negative right to not be stolen from. Assuming that he also has the positive duty to give me the medication to save my life, but decides not to give me the medication anyways, what are we to do? Are we to rank certain rights? Either he violates my positive right to healthcare (using the medication as a simplified working definition of healthcare), or I violate his negative right to not be stolen from. There is only an issue here if we assume that I do indeed have a positive right to healthcare, and if so then it's impossible for both rights to be inalienable. Human rights are inalienable by definition. At what cost can negative rights be violated to provide positive rights to healthcare? I prefer to think of situations like this as follows: The man has some medication that he won't give to me for immoral reasons, but he has an inalienable right to not be stolen from. Although I don't have a positive right to healthcare, which would necessitate the destruction of his negative right to not be stolen from, I simply value life (healthcare) over his negative right in this case. I'd steal the medicine, not because of a rights-based justification from some duty of his to give up his own property, but simply because some things are more important than rights.


I suppose I'm saying that many second-gen and third-gen "rights" aren't really rights at all, but simply values and ideals that sometimes provide moral justification for the violation of some first-gen rights, which are truly rights in the most rigorous definition of the term.

Of course I don't believe anyone should die from treatable disease. It's like asking "do you like good things and dislike bad things?" Why should anyone die from a treatable disease? Of course the word treatable implies we have the means to treat a disease. If I haven't contacted some tribe in a remote part of the world, how the hell am I supposed to obtain or mobilize the resources to treat whatever disease exists in the tribe? If you can do something about a disease and do not then you are acting immorally in my opinion. You might then say, "Well then, the whole world is immoral all of the time!" Duh, of course it is. Any worldview which takes as a given that the world is a moral place all of the time for everyone is making some very, very egregious concessions about reality. The point is to say "we can do better", imagine how that is the case or how to get there, and then do it. People's rights are in fact being violated all of the time, everywhere, all over the world. This doesn't mean those rights dont exist....

Agreed, I misinterpreted the word "treatable" as diseases or conditions for which there are known treatments/cures, not taking into account the logistics/means/practicality of actually doing the "treating."

I'm going to quickly address this because this is the central ideological argument against the concept of "healthcare as a human right"
This is begging the question. You presuppose that the right to healthcare is the right to steal healthcare. It assumes healthcare is a thing to be stolen and you define it as IP, medications, and procedures. I don't know how healthcare is IP, maybe you could clear that up for me, but I don't think we are giving away patents to patients every time we give them a prescription so I'm going to go ahead and use "medications and procedures" instead until you clarify. "Medications and procedures" are not healthcare. Healthcare, as I explained above, is the intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering. Medications and procedures are some means of intervention, but they are not healthcare itself. You can't "steal" healthcare. To have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate and to ensure appropriate interventions are not withheld. You don't "steal" that. Take the universally accepted right to legal representation in the court of law. Are you "stealing" from the attorney because you have a right to their service? No, you are not. The service might be free to you but the attorney is compensated. Furthermore, the attorney is freely giving their service (they chose to become an attorney, and furthermore a public servant) and an implication of their role is their duty to certain professional obligations which include protecting your right to representation in the court of law. Similarly, in a scenario where it is given healthcare is protected as a human right, you are not "stealing" from a physician. The physician is still compensated, even if the service might be free to you, and the service is freely given (the physician chose to become one, with the knowledge of the service role and their professional obligations).

Let's take the weaker case, which I think is irrelevant, anyway; namely, where the means of intervention are actually healthcare itself: medications and procedures = healthcare. The medications are not stolen, they are still paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service, and neither are the procedures.

Come on. Healthcare is absolutely something that can be stolen, and this happens all the time. If someone creates a new medication, which is one aspect of healthcare (in that it is an intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering), that can be stolen. The intellectual property of researchers can be stolen such that they cannot profit off of their discoveries. The government can force healthcare providers to perform procedures without receiving compensation for their time, work, or expertise. This is all stealing. Perhaps morally justified, sure, but violation of negative rights nonetheless. When someone comes into the ER and cannot pay for the medications they receive, they are taking money from those who bought it. You say that "to have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate," but such a duty violates negative rights. How can you say "the physician is still compensated," when that is so often not the case? It is simply ignorant to say that "medications are not stolen, they are paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service," because someone is obviously paying for those medications, even if they don't want to. Whether tax money is taken from citizens who aren't benefiting from the medication, or whether the hospital is footing the bill for patients who don't pay what they're legally obligated to, the medication must be paid for and someone who doesn't want to pay will have money taken from them to cover the cost. That is theft, and a violation of their negative rights. Whenever someone gets something "for free," something is stolen from someone else. No free lunch. Whether that's moral or immoral is beside the point of rights violations.

Given that healthcare is a human right, you have a duty to receive them and in order to not infringe upon the medication manufacturer's or procedure dispenser's rights they are compensated. Nothing is stolen from anyone.

Compensated by whom? By those who don't benefit from the medication or procedure. Again, that is theft, which is a violation of the negative right to not be stolen from. Theft which is morally justified.
 
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"First, lets try to be clear about how we use "natural". You seem to mean "natural" as in "observable in nature absent of willful intervention"; i.e, a finite number of resources and ab initio inequality result in poverty "naturally" in the sense that were humans just animals out in the world, poverty would be a natural consequence. If that is what you mean, I agree. In fact, one could argue that a "natural" state by this definition would be almost constant poverty since 100% of existence would be devoted to essentially just meeting basic needs for survival, and, as you define it, poverty is the material absence of those needs. If you mean that poverty is natural simply because it is a historical fact that it has always existed, then I don't agree and I don't really understand how "natural" actually works in that context outside of being a poor synonym for identifying an observation about reality."

Yes, by "natural" I mean that poverty is the default state of humankind in nature, at least until relatively recently when enormous developments have been made. I mean this in the same way that you could consider chimpanzees to be impoverished in that they do not benefit from any advancements in sanitation, food production, medication, etc. Humans have lived in absolute poverty for thousands of years, and it is simply incorrect to claim that such poverty is unnatural now that some have risen above poverty. Given my working definition of the term "natural," it seems that we agree here (there's not much to disagree on, really).

Mandela is not trying to make a rigorous argument here. He is trying to highlight that poverty in our modern society has not come about as a result of a law of nature. It is not because there are finite resources that poverty exists, it is because the distribution of the resources that are available is unequal that poverty exists. He is also not just referring to relative poverty which means that some have a lot less than others, he is talking about the type of poverty everyone actually cares about, namely absolute poverty which means you do not have access to the basic needs of survival. If you live in a society with sufficient resources to eliminate absolute poverty then that poverty is not "natural" but is, in fact, man made because it is by human intervention and design that resources are not distributed in such a way that absolute poverty is eliminated; as long as it is a fact that sufficient resources exist and they continue to be distributed inequitably then it is a fact that any absolute poverty within that society is sustained only by human intervention and, as Nelson Mandela claims, it could be undone by human intervention, in particular, by redistributing the materials necessary to eliminate poverty. Whether or not you think those resources ought to be redistributed, or whether you differ on how they should be redistributed, is a totally separate argument, however, I do not think there is any arguing with the claim that in a rich society absolute poverty is entirely made and maintained by human intervention. If absolute poverty were indeed "natural" in the sense that it is a result of a law of nature then there would be nothing at all anyone could do to alleviate it. It would be like trying to stop gravity or charge repulsion or anything like that. Describing poverty as "natural" in the sense I previously described, "observable in nature absent of willful intervention" (note how this is not the same as the previous definition, a law of nature would be observable in spite of any willful intervention because it is constant), has no value to the actual substance of Mandela's comment which is "we can do something about poverty, so let's do it" so using that definition to argue that his comment is false is just a straw man. In spite of these semantics, I will stick with Mandela's comment. I agree with the spirit of it, with the thrust of what it proposes, and I like the man as a general symbol.

We disagree on some points here. Regardless of the reasons for an individual living in absolute poverty, whether that be unequal distribution of plentiful resources or a lack of resources altogether, the impoverished individual is living the same quality of life. Take the uncontacted Sentinelese people, for example. They have been living a hunter-gatherer lifestyle in absolute poverty for hundreds or even thousands of years. This is their natural quality of life. Great societies have risen up around that tribe over the past few hundred years, obtaining enormous wealth and technological advancements which made it easy to obtain food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare. The quality of life for the Sentinelese people has not changed over that time. The surrounding societies could have provided them with food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare, but they did not. I don't think that's immoral. They're living in absolute poverty, but such poverty is not man-made just because surrounding peoples could have offered luxury and decided not to. It is still nature-made. We can easily apply this same reasoning to those who are in absolute poverty within successful societies, and we find the same conclusion even though its emotional impact seems stronger. A child who is born to an absolutely impoverished family in America is no worse off than if the same child were born to an absolutely impoverished family in a society without the resources of America. The child's quality of life is the same in both cases (more or less), and it doesn't make sense to say that the child's poverty in the first case is man-made simply because individuals in close proximity to the child have wealth. The poverty is nature-made in both cases, but it just seems more extreme in the first case because it is compared to luxurious lives of nearby individuals. This is not to say that those around an impoverished child in America shouldn't offer support. They should, from any moral viewpoint. It is just to say that it's disingenuous to claim that the child's poverty is suddenly man-made since nearby people have wealth and resources, when such poverty has been occurring for thousands of years. Similarly, sunburns did not suddenly become man-made once sunscreen was developed. Headaches did not suddenly become man-made once ibuprofen was developed. Stubbing your toe didn't become man-made when shoes were developed. In the same way, poverty didn't become man-made once societies accumulated wealth and plentiful resources. Again, note that I'm only taking issue with your repeated claim that poverty is man-made in certain cases, not your belief that allowing poverty can be very immoral.

You can't say that it's by human intervention that resources are not distributed in a way that eliminates poverty. It's precisely by the lack of human intervention that poverty is not eliminated, and most would agree - at least on an emotional level - that passive failure to do moral deeds is not as bad as active immoral deeds. This is why we don't charge rich people with murder for allowing the poor to starve, but we severely punish those who actively take a single life in an active manner.

All that said, I quite like the spirit of Mandela's comment too, and agree that we should try to fix issues of poverty. I don't think anyone would disagree with you there.

As an aside, slavery is not "completely natural" as your derivation of Mandela's comment state. Not in any sense of the word natural does the natural produce slavery.

If chimps had the intellectual capacity to enslave other chimps, would they do so? If fish could enslave other fish, would they do so? Of course. As evolution is such a purely selfish and amoral process, any group of animals that has the intellectual and physical ability to exploit others will do so if it offers some benefit. This is why slavery can be traced back almost as far back as societies can be traced back. Slavery is natural in the sense that exploitation is natural. However, I suppose we could then say that literally everything about humans is natural since evolutionary processes have shaped everything about us, so I see your point and this topic is beside the issue.

This is one way to define negative rights. Like the example you give, if you have a right to life then I have a both a negative duty not to kill you and a positive duty to prevent others from doing so, otherwise this right can be violated. This statement presupposes that there is no such thing as positive rights. A positive right is a right that can only be fulfilled if it is provided. For example, according to the Bill of Rights you have a right to a fair and speedy trial. This right must be fulfilled to comply with the law and indeed it can only be fulfilled if it is provided for you. Again there are positive and negative duties; I must provide the fair and speedy trial and prevent others from not providing the fair and speedy trial when a trial is due. Etc., etc., etc. for any other number of things universally agreed upon to be rights.

Moving on.


I think I know what you mean by natural here and I completely agree. It would be absurd to argue that "disease" is moral or immoral. It doesn't even begin to make sense and it is unrelated to the idea of human rights. However, healthcare as a human right does not mean "the right to be free of disease". It is the right to receive available interventions to prevent or alleviate human suffering as a result of disease. Furthermore, it is a positive right. It can only be fulfilled if it is provided. Therefore, I have a duty to ensure interventions are provided to prevent or alleviate that suffering and a duty to ensure it is not withheld in the same fashion we might ensure a fair and speedy trial and prevent one from being withheld. To be clear, the moral question does not lie in having or not having any particular disease (treatable or not), the moral question is whether given preventable and soluble human suffering we have a duty to prevent and alleviate it. If we do, then healthcare is a human right. If we don't, then it isn't. That's the argument to be had. It's a difficult argument, but I think in your original criticism you missed it. Of course when you enshrine a new right you might obtain conflicts between existing rights. You can elucidate and solve those conflicts, their mere existence does not mean that the right does not exist. In fact, an emergent conflict between an existing right and a "newly formulated" right could illuminate structural injustices and failures in the framework of rights currently accepted. Paul Farmer's quote essentially says, "Yah there's a tough argument to be had here, but let me skip to the point and say that we can do something about treatable diseases, namely treat them, so we should."

The trouble is that positive rights infringe on negative rights (and sometimes other positive rights), while negative rights don't tend to infringe on any other rights. This is why first-generation rights are so widely accepted as inalienable, while second-generation and third-generation rights (which are generally positive rights) are far more debatable and controversial. Using your example, I certainly have a duty to respect your negative right to not be killed, by not killing you. That is an indisputable negative duty of mine. However, I believe you are begging the question when you say I have the positive duty to prevent others from killing you. This is the entire question we are discussing. Do I truly have a duty to stop others from killing you? At what cost to myself? At what level of risk to my own well-being must I intervene in a dangerous and violent situation? Forcing me to carry out my supposed positive duty of ensuring your safety directly infringes on my negative right to not be harmed myself.

To draw the parallel, I have a negative duty to not steal from others, because people have the negative right to not be stolen from. Assuming a man has some medication that he doesn't need, which I do need to stay alive, and there is no other way to obtain the medication, he still has the negative right to not be stolen from. Assuming that he also has the positive duty to give me the medication to save my life, but decides not to give me the medication anyways, what are we to do? Are we to rank certain rights? Either he violates my positive right to healthcare (using the medication as a simplified working definition of healthcare), or I violate his negative right to not be stolen from. There is only an issue here if we assume that I do indeed have a positive right to healthcare, and if so then it's impossible for both rights to be inalienable. Human rights are inalienable by definition. At what cost can negative rights be violated to provide positive rights to healthcare? I prefer to think of situations like this as follows: The man has some medication that he won't give to me for immoral reasons, but he has an inalienable right to not be stolen from. Although I don't have a positive right to healthcare, which would necessitate the destruction of his negative right to not be stolen from, I simply value life (healthcare) over his negative right in this case. I'd steal the medicine, not because of a rights-based justification from some duty of his to give up his own property, but simply because some things are more important than rights.


I suppose I'm saying that many second-gen and third-gen "rights" aren't really rights at all, but simply values and ideals that sometimes provide moral justification for the violation of some first-gen rights, which are truly rights in the most rigorous definition of the term.

Of course I don't believe anyone should die from treatable disease. It's like asking "do you like good things and dislike bad things?" Why should anyone die from a treatable disease? Of course the word treatable implies we have the means to treat a disease. If I haven't contacted some tribe in a remote part of the world, how the hell am I supposed to obtain or mobilize the resources to treat whatever disease exists in the tribe? If you can do something about a disease and do not then you are acting immorally in my opinion. You might then say, "Well then, the whole world is immoral all of the time!" Duh, of course it is. Any worldview which takes as a given that the world is a moral place all of the time for everyone is making some very, very egregious concessions about reality. The point is to say "we can do better", imagine how that is the case or how to get there, and then do it. People's rights are in fact being violated all of the time, everywhere, all over the world. This doesn't mean those rights dont exist....

Agreed, I misinterpreted the word "treatable" as diseases or conditions for which there are known treatments/cures, not taking into account the logistics/means/practicality of actually doing the "treating."

I'm going to quickly address this because this is the central ideological argument against the concept of "healthcare as a human right"
This is begging the question. You presuppose that the right to healthcare is the right to steal healthcare. It assumes healthcare is a thing to be stolen and you define it as IP, medications, and procedures. I don't know how healthcare is IP, maybe you could clear that up for me, but I don't think we are giving away patents to patients every time we give them a prescription so I'm going to go ahead and use "medications and procedures" instead until you clarify. "Medications and procedures" are not healthcare. Healthcare, as I explained above, is the intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering. Medications and procedures are some means of intervention, but they are not healthcare itself. You can't "steal" healthcare. To have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate and to ensure appropriate interventions are not withheld. You don't "steal" that. Take the universally accepted right to legal representation in the court of law. Are you "stealing" from the attorney because you have a right to their service? No, you are not. The service might be free to you but the attorney is compensated. Furthermore, the attorney is freely giving their service (they chose to become an attorney, and furthermore a public servant) and an implication of their role is their duty to certain professional obligations which include protecting your right to representation in the court of law. Similarly, in a scenario where it is given healthcare is protected as a human right, you are not "stealing" from a physician. The physician is still compensated, even if the service might be free to you, and the service is freely given (the physician chose to become one, with the knowledge of the service role and their professional obligations).

Let's take the weaker case, which I think is irrelevant, anyway; namely, where the means of intervention are actually healthcare itself: medications and procedures = healthcare. The medications are not stolen, they are still paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service, and neither are the procedures.

Come on. Healthcare is absolutely something that can be stolen, and this happens all the time. If someone creates a new medication, which is one aspect of healthcare (in that it is an intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering), that can be stolen. The intellectual property of researchers can be stolen such that they cannot profit off of their discoveries. The government can force healthcare providers to perform procedures without receiving compensation for their time, work, or expertise. This is all stealing. Perhaps morally justified, sure, but violation of negative rights nonetheless. When someone comes into the ER and cannot pay for the medications they receive, they are taking money from those who bought it. You say that "to have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate," but such a duty violates negative rights. How can you say "the physician is still compensated," when that is so often not the case? It is simply ignorant to say that "medications are not stolen, they are paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service," because someone is obviously paying for those medications, even if they don't want to. Whether tax money is taken from citizens who aren't benefiting from the medication, or whether the hospital is footing the bill for patients who don't pay what they're legally obligated to, the medication must be paid for and someone who doesn't want to pay will have money taken from them to cover the cost. That is theft, and a violation of their negative rights. Whenever someone gets something "for free," something is stolen from someone else. No free lunch. Whether that's moral or immoral is beside the point of rights violations.

Given that healthcare is a human right, you have a duty to receive them and in order to not infringe upon the medication manufacturer's or procedure dispenser's rights they are compensated. Nothing is stolen from anyone.

Compensated by whom? By those who don't benefit from the medication or procedure. Again, that is theft, which is a violation of the negative right to not be stolen from. Theft which is morally justified.

I didn't read every single word of this novel of a post, but have you ever lived in poverty? The single moms or even just single people living below the poverty line are not living with the same quality of life as an entire culture living in "poverty" outside of society. That's an extremely immature viewpoint that smacks of someone who has never had to choose between dinner for yourself or dinner for your kids (not really a choice, and thank God I've not been in that situation with my kids; however, I was poor and living in poverty when I was single for a few tight years).
 
I didn't read every single word of this novel of a post,
You really should or you risk missing the point.
The single moms or even just single people living below the poverty line are not living with the same quality of life as an entire culture living in "poverty" outside of society.
Would you mind clarifying which population you believe has a worse quality of life?
 
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You really should or you risk missing the point.

I read enough to get the point. I only wanted to address the comparison between people living in poverty in developed societies vice undeveloped ones.

Would you mind clarifying which population you believe has a worse quality of life?

I wasn't making a judgement of better or worse, just different. But I'd say the society where everyone shares the same quality of life and works towards the survival of the population probably has it better than the mom trying to take care of her kids on a minimum wage job.

Of course that's not stagnant. I was living in poverty, and my wife and I now live very comfortably. My point is that the cultures are too different to say they are equal.
 
I read enough to get the point. I only wanted to address the comparison between people living in poverty in developed societies vice undeveloped ones.

I do not think @walloobi was claiming that the two societies are strictly identical. The point of the post was to discuss whether or not poverty is natural or unnatural. Up to this point they have been defining "poverty" as limited access to food, clean water, education, shelter, and basic medical care. In this regard, I think both populations are similar enough to merit comparison.

I wasn't making a judgement of better or worse, just different. But I'd say the society where everyone shares the same quality of life and works towards the survival of the population probably has it better than the mom trying to take care of her kids on a minimum wage job.

To clarify, your belief is that the single mother working for minimum wage has it worse than the culture living in absolute poverty, and @walloobi's post reflects an extremely immature viewpoint because it claims that the two populations are more or less the same in terms of "poverty"?
 
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I do not think @walloobi was claiming that the two societies are strictly identical. The point of the post was to discuss whether or not poverty is natural or unnatural. Up to this point they have been defining "poverty" as limited access to food, clean water, education, shelter, and basic medical care. In this regard, I think both populations are similar enough to merit comparison.

He stated a few times that the quality of life is equal. I disagree. I've never lived in an isolated society, but I've experienced living in poverty alone and with a group, and it was much easier in the group even if only because you had more than one person looking out for you.

The argument that poverty is the natural state of man is not something I necessarily disagree with. I just don't think living in poverty in a city, say, is the same as living in an undeveloped society, for many reasons.

To clarify, your belief is that the single mother working for minimum wage has it worse than the culture living in absolute poverty, and @walloobi's post reflects an extremely immature viewpoint because it claims that the two populations are more or less the same in terms of "poverty"?

So you asked me which I think is worse, and I explained that I didn't put it in terms of better or worse, but forced to choose, I'd say the mother has it worse (with the caveat that the mother could experience a change in her situation while the impoverished society likely won't), and you decided to cherry pick that one line. Roger.

I think the view that a person living in squalor in the US is equal to living in an isolated society is immature, because it says to me that the person has never seen (not necessarily lived in, but at least researched) the realities of living in squalor. I disagree that poverty is poverty no matter where you live.
 
He stated a few times that the quality of life is equal. I disagree. I've never lived in an isolated society, but I've experienced living in poverty alone and with a group, and it was much easier in the group even if only because you had more than one person looking out for you.

The argument that poverty is the natural state of man is not something I necessarily disagree with. I just don't think living in poverty in a city, say, is the same as living in an undeveloped society, for many reasons.
The point I am making is that we are not discussing poverty in terms of your experiences. I agree with you that facing poverty alone is quite different than facing it in a group, but the post isn't challenging this viewpoint. If I say that a dog and a cat are both mammals because they are warm blooded and nurse their young, that doesn't mean I'm claiming they're the same thing.
I think the view that a person living in squalor in the US is equal to living in an isolated society is immature, because it says to me that the person has never seen (not necessarily lived in, but at least researched) the realities of living in squalor. I disagree that poverty is poverty no matter where you live.
In terms of access to the resources I listed above, I don't believe it is immature to compare these two populations. They both have limited access to food, shelter, basic medical care etc. This is a simplification for the sake of discussion.
So you asked me which I think is worse, and I explained that I didn't put it in terms of better or worse, but forced to choose, I'd say the mother has it worse (with the caveat that the mother could experience a change in her situation while the impoverished society likely won't), and you decided to cherry pick that one line. Roger.
I was trying to understand if you thought @walloobi 's viewpoint was immature solely because it equated the poverty you described to the poverty of the Sentinelese, or because it somehow diminished the poverty of developed societies.
 
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The point I am making is that we are not discussing poverty in terms of your experiences. I agree with you that facing poverty alone is quite different than facing it in a group, but the post isn't challenging this viewpoint. If I say that a dog and a cat are both mammals because they are warm blooded and nurse their young, that doesn't mean I'm claiming they're the same thing.

I was using my experience to explain why I disagreed. The poster I responded to claimed that poverty is poverty. He explicitly claimed that the poverty experienced by isolated societies is equal to the poverty experienced by those in developed societies. I disagree, because I don't think you can simply say that because poverty is natural, it is the same everywhere. I think his argument is extremely academic and removed from reality.

You are grossly simplifying my argument and attempting to dismiss something I'm not really arguing. Sound familiar?

In terms of access to the resources I listed above, I don't believe it is immature to compare these two populations. They both have limited access to food, shelter, basic medical care etc. This is a simplification for the sake of discussion.

If you want to grossly oversimplify, then yes. They both have limited access to food and shelter. But that is a gross oversimplification. The realities of poverty in various situations make them different, which is my whole point.

I was trying to understand if you thought @walloobi 's viewpoint was immature solely because it equated the poverty you described to the poverty of the Sentinelese, or because it somehow diminished the poverty of developed societies.

No, I just don't believe the oversimplification of poverty is particularly accurate.

Edited for grammar.
 
I disagree, because I don't think you can simply say that because poverty is natural, it is the same everywhere.
@walloobi could clarify, but I don't think his/her post is making this claim at all.

I think our disagreement stems from different interpretations of the original post, and we are starting to argue semantics. From an academic perspective that uses a sociological definition of the word poverty, saying the two populations are very similar is not an immature, gross oversimplification. If we are discussing poverty using the vast dimensions that you attribute to the word, then I wholeheartedly agree with you that the two populations are worlds apart. The realities of these two examples of poverty are incomparable, but fundamentally they are the same.

EDIT: After contributing four posts that discuss something other than bone marrow donation, I realize that I am officially a hypocrite.
 
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@walloobi could clarify, but I don't think his/her post is making this claim at all.

I think our disagreement stems from different interpretations of the original post, and we are starting to argue semantics. From an academic perspective that uses a sociological definition of the word poverty, saying the two populations are very similar is not an immature, gross oversimplification. If we are discussing poverty using the vast dimensions that you attribute to the word, then I wholeheartedly agree with you that the two populations are worlds apart. The realities of these two examples of poverty are incomparable, but fundamentally they are the same.

I don't disagree. I guess my point is that saying they are the same is kind of pointless.

EDIT: After contributing four posts that discuss something other than bone marrow donation, I realize that I am officially a hypocrite.

Agreed (as in, me too!).
 
As we move more towards everyone having access to healthcare, why not use donations like this as a way to cheapen healthcare costs? Kind of a weird example, but it could be similar to automobile insurance in that if you're a safe driver, rates are lowered or rewards are given. I would love to see the same happen for people willing to donate tissue (bone marrow, blood products, etc) and even for healthy BMI's and things like that. Humans are much more likely to pursue something if there is a reward, wealthy or poor. Maybe it's a weird outlook, but I would love to see more incentives in healthcare as I think it would do a lot for the field of preventative medicine.
 
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"First, lets try to be clear about how we use "natural". You seem to mean "natural" as in "observable in nature absent of willful intervention"; i.e, a finite number of resources and ab initio inequality result in poverty "naturally" in the sense that were humans just animals out in the world, poverty would be a natural consequence. If that is what you mean, I agree. In fact, one could argue that a "natural" state by this definition would be almost constant poverty since 100% of existence would be devoted to essentially just meeting basic needs for survival, and, as you define it, poverty is the material absence of those needs. If you mean that poverty is natural simply because it is a historical fact that it has always existed, then I don't agree and I don't really understand how "natural" actually works in that context outside of being a poor synonym for identifying an observation about reality."

Yes, by "natural" I mean that poverty is the default state of humankind in nature, at least until relatively recently when enormous developments have been made. I mean this in the same way that you could consider chimpanzees to be impoverished in that they do not benefit from any advancements in sanitation, food production, medication, etc. Humans have lived in absolute poverty for thousands of years, and it is simply incorrect to claim that such poverty is unnatural now that some have risen above poverty. Given my working definition of the term "natural," it seems that we agree here (there's not much to disagree on, really).

Mandela is not trying to make a rigorous argument here. He is trying to highlight that poverty in our modern society has not come about as a result of a law of nature. It is not because there are finite resources that poverty exists, it is because the distribution of the resources that are available is unequal that poverty exists. He is also not just referring to relative poverty which means that some have a lot less than others, he is talking about the type of poverty everyone actually cares about, namely absolute poverty which means you do not have access to the basic needs of survival. If you live in a society with sufficient resources to eliminate absolute poverty then that poverty is not "natural" but is, in fact, man made because it is by human intervention and design that resources are not distributed in such a way that absolute poverty is eliminated; as long as it is a fact that sufficient resources exist and they continue to be distributed inequitably then it is a fact that any absolute poverty within that society is sustained only by human intervention and, as Nelson Mandela claims, it could be undone by human intervention, in particular, by redistributing the materials necessary to eliminate poverty. Whether or not you think those resources ought to be redistributed, or whether you differ on how they should be redistributed, is a totally separate argument, however, I do not think there is any arguing with the claim that in a rich society absolute poverty is entirely made and maintained by human intervention. If absolute poverty were indeed "natural" in the sense that it is a result of a law of nature then there would be nothing at all anyone could do to alleviate it. It would be like trying to stop gravity or charge repulsion or anything like that. Describing poverty as "natural" in the sense I previously described, "observable in nature absent of willful intervention" (note how this is not the same as the previous definition, a law of nature would be observable in spite of any willful intervention because it is constant), has no value to the actual substance of Mandela's comment which is "we can do something about poverty, so let's do it" so using that definition to argue that his comment is false is just a straw man. In spite of these semantics, I will stick with Mandela's comment. I agree with the spirit of it, with the thrust of what it proposes, and I like the man as a general symbol.

We disagree on some points here. Regardless of the reasons for an individual living in absolute poverty, whether that be unequal distribution of plentiful resources or a lack of resources altogether, the impoverished individual is living the same quality of life. Take the uncontacted Sentinelese people, for example. They have been living a hunter-gatherer lifestyle in absolute poverty for hundreds or even thousands of years. This is their natural quality of life. Great societies have risen up around that tribe over the past few hundred years, obtaining enormous wealth and technological advancements which made it easy to obtain food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare. The quality of life for the Sentinelese people has not changed over that time. The surrounding societies could have provided them with food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare, but they did not. I don't think that's immoral. They're living in absolute poverty, but such poverty is not man-made just because surrounding peoples could have offered luxury and decided not to. It is still nature-made. We can easily apply this same reasoning to those who are in absolute poverty within successful societies, and we find the same conclusion even though its emotional impact seems stronger. A child who is born to an absolutely impoverished family in America is no worse off than if the same child were born to an absolutely impoverished family in a society without the resources of America. The child's quality of life is the same in both cases (more or less), and it doesn't make sense to say that the child's poverty in the first case is man-made simply because individuals in close proximity to the child have wealth. The poverty is nature-made in both cases, but it just seems more extreme in the first case because it is compared to luxurious lives of nearby individuals. This is not to say that those around an impoverished child in America shouldn't offer support. They should, from any moral viewpoint. It is just to say that it's disingenuous to claim that the child's poverty is suddenly man-made since nearby people have wealth and resources, when such poverty has been occurring for thousands of years. Similarly, sunburns did not suddenly become man-made once sunscreen was developed. Headaches did not suddenly become man-made once ibuprofen was developed. Stubbing your toe didn't become man-made when shoes were developed. In the same way, poverty didn't become man-made once societies accumulated wealth and plentiful resources. Again, note that I'm only taking issue with your repeated claim that poverty is man-made in certain cases, not your belief that allowing poverty can be very immoral.

You can't say that it's by human intervention that resources are not distributed in a way that eliminates poverty. It's precisely by the lack of human intervention that poverty is not eliminated, and most would agree - at least on an emotional level - that passive failure to do moral deeds is not as bad as active immoral deeds. This is why we don't charge rich people with murder for allowing the poor to starve, but we severely punish those who actively take a single life in an active manner.

All that said, I quite like the spirit of Mandela's comment too, and agree that we should try to fix issues of poverty. I don't think anyone would disagree with you there.

As an aside, slavery is not "completely natural" as your derivation of Mandela's comment state. Not in any sense of the word natural does the natural produce slavery.

If chimps had the intellectual capacity to enslave other chimps, would they do so? If fish could enslave other fish, would they do so? Of course. As evolution is such a purely selfish and amoral process, any group of animals that has the intellectual and physical ability to exploit others will do so if it offers some benefit. This is why slavery can be traced back almost as far back as societies can be traced back. Slavery is natural in the sense that exploitation is natural. However, I suppose we could then say that literally everything about humans is natural since evolutionary processes have shaped everything about us, so I see your point and this topic is beside the issue.

This is one way to define negative rights. Like the example you give, if you have a right to life then I have a both a negative duty not to kill you and a positive duty to prevent others from doing so, otherwise this right can be violated. This statement presupposes that there is no such thing as positive rights. A positive right is a right that can only be fulfilled if it is provided. For example, according to the Bill of Rights you have a right to a fair and speedy trial. This right must be fulfilled to comply with the law and indeed it can only be fulfilled if it is provided for you. Again there are positive and negative duties; I must provide the fair and speedy trial and prevent others from not providing the fair and speedy trial when a trial is due. Etc., etc., etc. for any other number of things universally agreed upon to be rights.

Moving on.


I think I know what you mean by natural here and I completely agree. It would be absurd to argue that "disease" is moral or immoral. It doesn't even begin to make sense and it is unrelated to the idea of human rights. However, healthcare as a human right does not mean "the right to be free of disease". It is the right to receive available interventions to prevent or alleviate human suffering as a result of disease. Furthermore, it is a positive right. It can only be fulfilled if it is provided. Therefore, I have a duty to ensure interventions are provided to prevent or alleviate that suffering and a duty to ensure it is not withheld in the same fashion we might ensure a fair and speedy trial and prevent one from being withheld. To be clear, the moral question does not lie in having or not having any particular disease (treatable or not), the moral question is whether given preventable and soluble human suffering we have a duty to prevent and alleviate it. If we do, then healthcare is a human right. If we don't, then it isn't. That's the argument to be had. It's a difficult argument, but I think in your original criticism you missed it. Of course when you enshrine a new right you might obtain conflicts between existing rights. You can elucidate and solve those conflicts, their mere existence does not mean that the right does not exist. In fact, an emergent conflict between an existing right and a "newly formulated" right could illuminate structural injustices and failures in the framework of rights currently accepted. Paul Farmer's quote essentially says, "Yah there's a tough argument to be had here, but let me skip to the point and say that we can do something about treatable diseases, namely treat them, so we should."

The trouble is that positive rights infringe on negative rights (and sometimes other positive rights), while negative rights don't tend to infringe on any other rights. This is why first-generation rights are so widely accepted as inalienable, while second-generation and third-generation rights (which are generally positive rights) are far more debatable and controversial. Using your example, I certainly have a duty to respect your negative right to not be killed, by not killing you. That is an indisputable negative duty of mine. However, I believe you are begging the question when you say I have the positive duty to prevent others from killing you. This is the entire question we are discussing. Do I truly have a duty to stop others from killing you? At what cost to myself? At what level of risk to my own well-being must I intervene in a dangerous and violent situation? Forcing me to carry out my supposed positive duty of ensuring your safety directly infringes on my negative right to not be harmed myself.

To draw the parallel, I have a negative duty to not steal from others, because people have the negative right to not be stolen from. Assuming a man has some medication that he doesn't need, which I do need to stay alive, and there is no other way to obtain the medication, he still has the negative right to not be stolen from. Assuming that he also has the positive duty to give me the medication to save my life, but decides not to give me the medication anyways, what are we to do? Are we to rank certain rights? Either he violates my positive right to healthcare (using the medication as a simplified working definition of healthcare), or I violate his negative right to not be stolen from. There is only an issue here if we assume that I do indeed have a positive right to healthcare, and if so then it's impossible for both rights to be inalienable. Human rights are inalienable by definition. At what cost can negative rights be violated to provide positive rights to healthcare? I prefer to think of situations like this as follows: The man has some medication that he won't give to me for immoral reasons, but he has an inalienable right to not be stolen from. Although I don't have a positive right to healthcare, which would necessitate the destruction of his negative right to not be stolen from, I simply value life (healthcare) over his negative right in this case. I'd steal the medicine, not because of a rights-based justification from some duty of his to give up his own property, but simply because some things are more important than rights.


I suppose I'm saying that many second-gen and third-gen "rights" aren't really rights at all, but simply values and ideals that sometimes provide moral justification for the violation of some first-gen rights, which are truly rights in the most rigorous definition of the term.

Of course I don't believe anyone should die from treatable disease. It's like asking "do you like good things and dislike bad things?" Why should anyone die from a treatable disease? Of course the word treatable implies we have the means to treat a disease. If I haven't contacted some tribe in a remote part of the world, how the hell am I supposed to obtain or mobilize the resources to treat whatever disease exists in the tribe? If you can do something about a disease and do not then you are acting immorally in my opinion. You might then say, "Well then, the whole world is immoral all of the time!" Duh, of course it is. Any worldview which takes as a given that the world is a moral place all of the time for everyone is making some very, very egregious concessions about reality. The point is to say "we can do better", imagine how that is the case or how to get there, and then do it. People's rights are in fact being violated all of the time, everywhere, all over the world. This doesn't mean those rights dont exist....

Agreed, I misinterpreted the word "treatable" as diseases or conditions for which there are known treatments/cures, not taking into account the logistics/means/practicality of actually doing the "treating."

I'm going to quickly address this because this is the central ideological argument against the concept of "healthcare as a human right"
This is begging the question. You presuppose that the right to healthcare is the right to steal healthcare. It assumes healthcare is a thing to be stolen and you define it as IP, medications, and procedures. I don't know how healthcare is IP, maybe you could clear that up for me, but I don't think we are giving away patents to patients every time we give them a prescription so I'm going to go ahead and use "medications and procedures" instead until you clarify. "Medications and procedures" are not healthcare. Healthcare, as I explained above, is the intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering. Medications and procedures are some means of intervention, but they are not healthcare itself. You can't "steal" healthcare. To have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate and to ensure appropriate interventions are not withheld. You don't "steal" that. Take the universally accepted right to legal representation in the court of law. Are you "stealing" from the attorney because you have a right to their service? No, you are not. The service might be free to you but the attorney is compensated. Furthermore, the attorney is freely giving their service (they chose to become an attorney, and furthermore a public servant) and an implication of their role is their duty to certain professional obligations which include protecting your right to representation in the court of law. Similarly, in a scenario where it is given healthcare is protected as a human right, you are not "stealing" from a physician. The physician is still compensated, even if the service might be free to you, and the service is freely given (the physician chose to become one, with the knowledge of the service role and their professional obligations).

Let's take the weaker case, which I think is irrelevant, anyway; namely, where the means of intervention are actually healthcare itself: medications and procedures = healthcare. The medications are not stolen, they are still paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service, and neither are the procedures.

Come on. Healthcare is absolutely something that can be stolen, and this happens all the time. If someone creates a new medication, which is one aspect of healthcare (in that it is an intervention against disease with the aim of preventing or alleviating suffering), that can be stolen. The intellectual property of researchers can be stolen such that they cannot profit off of their discoveries. The government can force healthcare providers to perform procedures without receiving compensation for their time, work, or expertise. This is all stealing. Perhaps morally justified, sure, but violation of negative rights nonetheless. When someone comes into the ER and cannot pay for the medications they receive, they are taking money from those who bought it. You say that "to have a right to healthcare means that a duty exists to initiate intervention when appropriate," but such a duty violates negative rights. How can you say "the physician is still compensated," when that is so often not the case? It is simply ignorant to say that "medications are not stolen, they are paid for even if they are free to the individual at the time of service," because someone is obviously paying for those medications, even if they don't want to. Whether tax money is taken from citizens who aren't benefiting from the medication, or whether the hospital is footing the bill for patients who don't pay what they're legally obligated to, the medication must be paid for and someone who doesn't want to pay will have money taken from them to cover the cost. That is theft, and a violation of their negative rights. Whenever someone gets something "for free," something is stolen from someone else. No free lunch. Whether that's moral or immoral is beside the point of rights violations.

Given that healthcare is a human right, you have a duty to receive them and in order to not infringe upon the medication manufacturer's or procedure dispenser's rights they are compensated. Nothing is stolen from anyone.

Compensated by whom? By those who don't benefit from the medication or procedure. Again, that is theft, which is a violation of the negative right to not be stolen from. Theft which is morally justified.

Thanks for clarifying. I'll use your definition of nature as "default state in [literal, physical] nature".

"Regardless of the reasons for an individual living in absolute poverty, whether that be unequal distribution of plentiful resources or a lack of resources altogether, the impoverished individual is living the same quality of life."
...
"The surrounding societies could have provided [a tribe] with food, water, shelter, and basic healthcare, but they did not. I don't think that's immoral. They're living in absolute poverty, but such poverty is not man-made just because surrounding peoples could have offered luxury and decided not to. It is still nature-made."

So let's pick this apart. Your first claim is that the circumstances of how absolute poverty is created are unimportant because the material conditions can be identical for two groups with different circumstances, namely one which is poor because of inequitable distribution of resources and another because there are no resources to begin with. Furthermore, the second claim is that the latter case is "nature-made". I disagree. The circumstances matter because the circumstances determine the actual choices available in a particular scenario. The existence of this choice characterizes the problem as a moral one. Without choice, there cannot be a moral question. Given absolute poverty in a society is a result of inequitable distribution, there are a variety of choices. Some of those choices eliminate absolute poverty, others do not, others alleviate it but do not eliminate it, others exacerbate it. My argument is that the best moral choice is the one which eliminates absolute poverty. If it is actually the case that no resources exist or are able to be created to eliminate absolute poverty, then there is moral question because there is no choice to begin with. It has nothing to do with quality of life, it has to do with how the existing material circumstances came about and in every single case material circumstances are determined by human intervention. Even in a hunter-gatherer society, it is human intervention which allows shelter to exist, food to be gathered or hunted, the wounded or ill to be cared for, etc. In the default state where every man is an island absolute poverty is the only state. There is nothing else to do but meet one's own needs. In a community which only comes about through the intervention of willful action (people stay together instead of killing eachother for resources and territory, they raise children together, they make decisions about where to move the tribe given a set of circumstances, etc.) and not through nature. We are programmed as social animals, and the constraints of the natural world determine how a community is organized, but there are a million and one ways for communities to be organized and for any one to actually come about it requires human intervention. The advanced case is modern society. It is still the case that we are programmed as social animals, constraints still exist, but our capacity to create and mobilize resources is much greater and this opens up more options for us to pursue including the abolition of absolute poverty. This does not only apply to material distribution but to everything. Almost every element of society exists only because of willful intervention, almost nothing is natural in the sense that you use, in that it comes about as a result of a default state of nature.

To reply to the example about the tribe, you identify a scenario where he choice is available, so there is a moral question, and the choice is made not to intervene. That is immoral if you take it as a given that nobody should live in absolute poverty. It is not the only question to be answered and there other considerations to keep in mind and the responses you think are appropriate might come into conflict with eachother and that has to be resolved somehow. But, to the essential question at hand: Is a state natural given that it comes about through human intervention? With your definition of natural, the answer is no. Where we disagree is whether or not poverty comes about through human intervention or not. Like I explained above, in a modern society, that is the case. Poverty is unnatural within a modern society because it is not because of nature (in other words, not because of concrete physical constraints) that it continues to exist because there exists the means with which to eliminate it, instead it continues to exist because we do not apply the means that exist in order to eliminate it. That is a choice, it is a decision made by humans not to do so, and therefore it is sustained only through human action.

Also, some notes about semantics. The choice is not in giving the tribe "luxuries" it is in assuring access to the basic needs of survival.

"This is not to say that those around an impoverished child in America shouldn't offer support. They should, from any moral viewpoint. It is just to say that it's disingenuous to claim that the child's poverty is suddenly man-made since nearby people have wealth and resources, when such poverty has been occurring for thousands of years. "

A very old fallacy. I'm just going to quote Hegel here, Philosophy of Right Section 3:

"When those who try to justify things on historical grounds confound an origin in external circumstances with one in the concept, they unconsciously achieve the very opposite of what they intend. Once the origination of an institution has been shown to be wholly to the purpose and necessary in the circumstances of the time, the demands of history have been fulfilled. But if this is supposed to pass for general justification of the thing itself, it turns out to be the opposite, because, since those circumstances are no longer present, the institution so far from being justified has by their disappearance lost its meaning and its right."

The "institution" in this case is absolute poverty. It's origins are from material circumstances as we have discussed. In the very beginning of human history, those circumstances were "wholly to the purpose and necessary in the circumstances of the time" since it was just a matter of fact that the material circumstances were in constant flux and limited in such a way that almost everyone would be in constant need of them; hence, hunter-gatherer society. This does not generally justify absolute poverty because this is no longer the case. It is therefore fallacious to suggest that simply because something has been the case that it is justified for it to continue. In fact, people made arguments exactly like yours to justify the continuation of slavery since it was just "a fact of existence" and that just because slaveowners existed and the slaveowners themselves were definitely immoral didnt mean that you were acting immorally if you were not an abolitionist. You further prove Hegel's point by first conceding that not helping the impoverished is immoral and then justifying the continued existence of absolute poverty.

Since your justification is based on a fallacy, I don't have to answer the first half, but I will anyway: A child's poverty is suddenly man-made if it is the case that it could cease to exist if men intervened. Again, the lack of intervention is also a choice and one deliberately made outside of the physical constraints of the natural world.

Of course, you already demonstrated that you disagree when you said:

"It's precisely by the lack of human intervention that poverty is not eliminated, and most would agree - at least on an emotional level - that passive failure to do moral deeds is not as bad as active immoral deeds. This is why we don't charge rich people with murder for allowing the poor to starve, but we severely punish those who actively take a single life in an active manner."

I hope I don't have to refer to the tired "trolley problem" to demonstrate that inaction is also an action. You don't eliminate decision making by not making decisions, you instead cede decision making to the underlying structure that created a particular question. This is why we call poverty "structural violence". No one person is responsible, and it would make no sense under any legal framework to call the rich murderers for allowing the poor to starve, but it is absolutely the case that it is only because of the structure of society, namely that structure which determines the distribution of resources, that poverty is allowed to come about. The maintenance of that structure is immoral and you can be rich, poor, or middle class and be complicit in the maintenance of that structure, most famously by refusing to acknowledge that it is immoral. Even if you feel on some emotional level that immoral inaction is not as immoral as direct immoral action it does not mean that you are not acting immorally in every case. Again, if you just give up the futile mental self-protection of pretending that you are always doing the best you morally can and that sometimes, maybe even most of the time you are acting immorally then you can get over the emotional problem and get to a point where you can start thinking about how to solve actual problems.

Moving on.

"If chimps had the intellectual capacity to enslave other chimps, would they do so? If fish could enslave other fish, would they do so? Of course. As evolution is such a purely selfish and amoral process, any group of animals that has the intellectual and physical ability to exploit others will do so if it offers some benefit. This is why slavery can be traced back almost as far back as societies can be traced back. Slavery is natural in the sense that exploitation is natural. However, I suppose we could then say that literally everything about humans is natural since evolutionary processes have shaped everything about us, so I see your point and this topic is beside the issue."

You actually explicitly demonstrate how slavery is not natural. It is not the default state of nature. Slavery requires first the existence of will and second the ability to impose that will on others in order to come about. Would it come about every time this was the case? I don't know, it's a speculative question and it depends on what you think the nature of intelligence is. I'm glad you see how this particular question doesnt really make sense in this discussion.







 
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