Lets discuss questions of NBDE 1

[d dimps]

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1). .Which angle does a P Wave makes on ECG?
a). .45 degree
b). .180 degree
c). .0 degree
d). .-45 degree
e). .-180 degree.

2). .What is endogenous cholesterol? Most endogenous cholesterol is converted to?
a). .Glucose
b). .Cholic acid
c). .Steroid
d). .Oxaloacetete
e). .Ketone bodies

3). .Which of the following statement is correct regarding Glioblastoma multiforme?
a). .the tumor is most common before puberty
b). .it is classified as a type of meningioma
c). .it is most common type of Astrocytoma.
d). .Its prognosis is generally more favourablethan Grade 1 astrocytoma.
e). .It is derived from the epithelial lining of ventricles

4). .Which of the following pathological changes is irreversible?
a). .fatty changes in liver cells
b). .karyolysis in myocardial cells
c). .glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei
d). .hydropic vacuolization of renal tubular epithelial cells.

5). .An example of Synergism is the effect of?
a). .insulin and glucagon on blood glucose
b). .estrogen and progesterone on uterine motility
c). .growth hormone and thyroxine on skeletal growth.
d). .Antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone on potassium excretion.

 

[Cindrella]

The common hepatic artery is a branch of the
A. gastric artery.
B. splenic artery.
C. celiac artery (trunk). ANSWER
D. superior mesenteric artery.

am i right ?

In the fetus, blood enters the common carotid arteries by means of the
A. aorta.
B. pulmonary vein.
C. pulmonary artery.
D. ductus arteriosus. ANSWER
E. thebesian veins (venae cordis minimae).


Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
(a) Fibroclasts;
(b) Osteoblasts;
(c) Macrophages;
(d) Cementoblasts
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (c) only
C. (b) and (d)
D. (d) only
E. All of the above ANSWER

 

[teethie]

all ant and post teeth have 4 point angles.

anybody knows this?😴
how many point angles does a canine have?

 

[teethie]

can anyone look in dental anatmy card 199, it says permanent teeth begins to develop 4 months in utero.
this is wrong or right???


..

The common hepatic artery is a branch of the
A. gastric artery.
B. splenic artery.
C. celiac artery (trunk). ANSWER----------------------👍
D. superior mesenteric artery.

am i right ?

In the fetus, blood enters the common carotid arteries by means of the
A. aorta.
B. pulmonary vein.
C. pulmonary artery.
D. ductus arteriosus. ANSWER
E. thebesian veins (venae cordis minimae).


Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
(a) Fibroclasts;
(b) Osteoblasts;
(c) Macrophages;---------------not sure??
(d) Cementoblasts
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (c) only
C. (b) and (d)
D. (d) only
E. All of the above ANSWER

 

[elmos]

can anyone look in dental anatmy card 199, it says permanent teeth begins to develop 4 months in utero.
this is wrong or right???


..

i think calcification begins the 4months in utero

 

[wdent]

Yes ,Elmos is rite teethie..
Calcification DOES begins with the 4th month in utero .(just confirming )

 

[teethie]

elmos and wdent, i agree that calcification starts in the 4 th month in utero but for primary teeth not for permanent teeth.
am i wrong??
is not the decks card wrong then😕

Yes ,Elmos is rite teethie..
Calcification DOES begins with the 4th month in utero .(just confirming )

 

[wdent]

@Teethie
Well for Permanent dentition,calcification starts @ birth (mand.ist molar) ....
Thats what i know and iam sure about it ...

I think ur kinda confused between developed and calcify... these Permanent teeth begin to develop by the 4th month and the first tooth that begin calcification (which is kinda of an exception) is the Mand.ist molar..

Hope its clear now !
🙂

 

[teethie]

thanks wdent🙂

@Teethie
Well for Permanent dentition,calcification starts @ birth (mand.ist molar) ....
Thats what i know and iam sure about it ...

I think ur kinda confused between developed and calcify... these Permanent teeth begin to develop by the 4th month and the first tooth that begin calcification (which is kinda of an exception) is the Mand.ist molar..

Hope its clear now !
🙂

 

[Cindrella]

Can someone pls put up a summary of embryo development ... day/weeks/months in utero / after birth etc frm head to toe .... my exam is in 2 days ......

 

[Anaita]

Can someone pls put up a summary of embryo development ... day/weeks/months in utero / after birth etc frm head to toe .... my exam is in 2 days ......

Am trying Cindrella. This is what i could collate till the third week.. rest are following..
Day2 Embryo is at two cell stage
Day3 Morula is formed
day 4 Blastocyst is formed
Day8 Bilaminar disc
Placenta- trophoblast differenciates in cytotrophoblast n syncitiotrophoblast
Day 9 Placenta... Lacunae appears in syncytium
Day 11 embryo gets implanted in endometrium
Day 13 Placental primary villi form
Day14 Prochordal plate
Day 15 Primitive streak appears. Definitive yolk sack is formed
Day 16 Intra - embryonic mesoderm is formed/ disc is now 3 layered. placental secondary and tertiary villi seen. GI - allantoic diverticulum starts appearing
Day 17 Notochord process appears. Heart tube is seen in cardiogenic area. Allantoic diverticulum is seen.
Day 19 Intra embryonic mesoderm is being formed . Connecting stalk can be distinguished
Day21 Neural groove is seen.
Third week events Head fold begins to form. Neural tube begins to form. Hypophysis- Infundibular diverticulum develops
Gut begins to acquire tubular form with head and tail foldings.
Hepatic bud appears. Also the pancreatic bud appears thereafter.
CVS - Blood and vessel forming cells ( angioblastic islands) appear. The cardiogenic area, hard tube and pericardium have formed.
Urogenital... intermediate mesoderm formed. External genitalia begin to form
Day 23 Closure of neural tube is seen.

 

[R19]

i know this qn has been discussed b4 but i couldnt find a definite ans so here its again-
Q-in lateral excursion on a pt with ideal occlusion,the mesial cusp ridge of the mand first premolar contacts the
1.distolingual surface of max canine
2.distolingual slope of buccal cusp of max first premolar
3.mesiolingual slope of buccal cusp of max first premolar
4.none of the above

Q.in CR cusp tip of distolingual cusp of perm mand first molar
1.contacts the distolingual surface of opposing tooth
2.contacts the lingual groove of opposing molar
3.ascends above middle third of opp crown
4.functions above plane of orientation
5.has no antagonist

 

[Cindrella]

Thanks a zillion Anaita ...


1-For a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme with a Km = 1 mM, which of the following represents the effect on the velocity if is changed from 10 mM to 20 mM? (Assume that the enzyme obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics.)

Small decrease
Small increase
Twofold decrease
Twofold increase
Twentyfold increase

Can i pl get a logical explanation for this....

2-What occurs primarily in adults and is characterized by increased airway resistance, decreased diffusing capacity of the lung, and chronic/permanent hypoxia?

3-Decreased arterial pressure upon standing is compensated by

decreased heart rate.
dilation of mesenteric vessels.
constriction of systemic arterioles. Answer ... pls explain
dilation of venules


4-The clearance rate for a substance that is completely removed from the blood during one pass through the kidney is equal to which of the following?

Renal plasma flow.. answer
Filtration fraction
Urinary excretion rate
Glomerular filtration rate
Tubular transport maximum

I don't uderstand during one pass 😕 do they mean all of it is being filtered and none is being reabsorbed or secreted ?

 

[Anaita]

Am trying Cindrella. This is what i could collate till the third week.. rest are following..
Day2 Embryo is at two cell stage
Day3 Morula is formed
day 4 Blastocyst is formed
Day8 Bilaminar disc
Placenta- trophoblast differenciates in cytotrophoblast n syncitiotrophoblast
Day 9 Placenta... Lacunae appears in syncytium
Day 11 embryo gets implanted in endometrium
Day 13 Placental primary villi form
Day14 Prochordal plate
Day 15 Primitive streak appears. Definitive yolk sack is formed
Day 16 Intra - embryonic mesoderm is formed/ disc is now 3 layered. placental secondary and tertiary villi seen. GI - allantoic diverticulum starts appearing
Day 17 Notochord process appears. Heart tube is seen in cardiogenic area. Allantoic diverticulum is seen.
Day 19 Intra embryonic mesoderm is being formed . Connecting stalk can be distinguished
Day21 Neural groove is seen.
Third week events Head fold begins to form. Neural tube begins to form. Hypophysis- Infundibular diverticulum develops
Gut begins to acquire tubular form with head and tail foldings.
Hepatic bud appears. Also the pancreatic bud appears thereafter.
CVS - Blood and vessel forming cells ( angioblastic islands) appear. The cardiogenic area, hard tube and pericardium have formed.
Urogenital... intermediate mesoderm formed. External genitalia begin to form
Day 23 Closure of neural tube is seen.

Day2 Embryo is at two cell stage
Day3 Morula is formed
day 4 Blastocyst is formed
Day8 Bilaminar disc
Placenta- trophoblast differenciates in cytotrophoblast n syncitiotrophoblast
Day 9 Placenta... Lacunae appears in syncytium
Day 11 Embryo gets implanted in endometrium
Day 13 Placental primary villi form
Day14 Prochordal plate
Day 15 Primitive streak appears. Definitive yolk sack is formed
Day 16 Intra - embryonic mesoderm is formed/ disc is now 3 layered.
Placental secondary and tertiary villi seen.
GI - allantoic diverticulum starts appearing
Day 17 Notochord process appears.
Heart tube is seen in cardiogenic area.
Allantoic diverticulum is seen.
Day 19 Intra embryonic mesoderm is being formed.
Connecting stalk can be distinguished
Day21 Neural groove is seen.
Other Third week events
Head fold begins to form.
Neural tube begins to form.
Hypophysis- Infundibular diverticulum develops
Gut begins to acquire tubular form with head and tail foldings.
Buccopharyngeal membrane ruptures (end of third week)
Hepatic bud appears.
Also the pancreatic bud appears thereafter.
CVS - Blood and vessel forming cells (angioblastic islands) appear.
The cardiogenic area, hard tube and pericardium have formed.
Urogenital... intermediate mesoderm formed. External genitalia begin to form
Fourth Week:
Day 22: Pharyngeal Arches – appearance of first ands second arch. Appearance of Optic Sulcus (Eye). Ear: Otic Placode Seen.
Day 23: Closure of neural tube. Primordial sensory ganglia formed (spinal and cranial)
Day 25: Closure of anterior neuropore
Day 26: Skeleton: Forelimb Bud appears
Day 27: Closure of posterior neuropore
Day 28: Skeleton: Hind limb Bud appears
Most cranial pairs of cervical ganglia formed.
Tongue starts forming (2 lateral swellings and Tuberculum Impar)
Fusiform shape of the stomach becomes visible
Septum Transversum (Diaphragm) established.
Tracheobronchial diverticulum formed.
CVS: Heart & Pericardium lie ventral to foregut. Subdivisions of heart are visible
Heart begins to Beat (Becomes functional)
Formation of septa in the heart begins
Aortic arches appear (Cranial to caudal)
Most of first aortic arch disappears by the end of fourth week.
Veins start forming
Urogenital: Pronephric tubules forming. Regress by end of fourth week.
Mesonephric tubules forming. Uro-rectal septum begins.
Hypophysis: Rathke’s Pouch protrudes from Stomatodeum
Eye: Optic vesicle contacts surface ectoderm. Lens Placode forming.
Fifth Week
Day 29: Four Pharyngeal arches are seen
Skeleton: Limbs become paddle shaped.
Hypobranchial eminence visible
Caecal Bud identified.
CVS: Spiral Septum Formed. Aortic arches complete. Lymphatic sac formed. Cardinal, Vitelline and Umbilical veins formed. Conduction system formed.
Urogenital: Metanephros is formed.
CNS: Formation of Brain Vesicle. Sympathetic ganglia formed. Cerebral hemispheres begin to form
Adrenal Gland begins to form
Eye: Eye primordium surrounded by loose mesenchyme
Ear: Auricle starts forming
Sixth Week
Day 36: Skeleton: Formation of Digits
Cartilaginous models of bone start forming
Dental Laminae of upper and lower Jaw established
GI- Intestinal loops well formed.
Urorectal septum starts dividing the cloaca.
Allantois and appendix become differentiated.
Diaphragm descends to thoracic level.
Stomach completes its rotation.
CVS: Coronary circulation established. AV Valves and Papillary muscles formed.
Urogenital: Metanephros is formed. Cloacal membrane divides into Urogenital and anal membranes
Eye: Choroid fissure formed. Lens vesicle seen.
Ear: Cochlea and Semi-circular canals forming.
Seventh Week:
Salivary Gland appears
Thyroid Gland reaches its definitive position.
Rotation of limbs occurs
Separation of cloaca into rectum and urogenital sinus
Intestinal loop herniates out of abdominal cavity
Fusion of dorsal and ventral pancreas.
Heart Septa are fully formed.
Urogenital: Urogenital sinus formed
Eye: Solid lens formed.
Eighth Week:
Dental: Enamel organs are formed
GI: Intestinal loop rotates counter-clockwise
CNS: Cerebellum starts forming.
Day 50: Elbow and knee established.
Fingers and Toes are free.
Primary centers of ossification are seen in few bones.
Placenta- Villi are seen all around the trophoblast
Hypophysis: Rathke’s pouch loses connection with oral cavity.
Ear: Cochlea and Semi-circular canals reach definitive form.
Ninth Week
Anal membrane breaks down
Tenth Week
Enamel organ becomes cup shaped
CNS: Corpus Callosum Formed
Ear: Scala Vestibuli and scala tympani formed.
11 Week
12 Week
Formation of tonsils
Primary centers of ossification in all long bones.
Head and tail folding are completed.
Herniated coils of intestine return to abdominal cavity.
Bile formation starts.
Pancreatic islets formed.
Urogenital: (9-12 weeks) Urethral folds fuse with each other. Prostate begins.
Definitive Kidney (metanephros) becomes functional.
CNS: Cerebellar cortex and Purkinje cells formed.
13 Week
14 Week
15 Week: CNS: Dentate Nucleus seen
16 Week: Definitive Placenta Formed.
Nerve Myelination begins
18 week
20 week: Tonsil infiltrated by lymphoid tissue
Insulin secretion begins
Vagina gets canalized.
24 week: Enamel and dentine formed
Tongue formation complete
28 week: Ear: External acoustic meatus canalized.
30 week:
32 week: Sulci and gyri start appearing on brain surface.
34 week
36 week
38 week
40 week

 

[Cindrella]

Anaita 🙂 can't thank you enough... thanku soooooooo much !!!!

another Q -

Central chemoreceptor ( medulla ) is sensitive to H+ increase
Peripheral chemoreceptor ( aortic / carotid body) is sentitive to High Pco2, low O2 , High H+

is this correct ??

 

[teethie]

anaita, thanks a lot for the info.

Thanks a zillion Anaita ...
The clearance rate for a substance that is completely removed from the blood during one pass through the kidney is equal to which of the following?

Renal plasma flow.. answer
Filtration fraction
Urinary excretion rate
Glomerular filtration rate
Tubular transport maximum

I don't uderstand during one pass 😕 do they mean all of it is being filtered and none is being reabsorbed or secreted ----------i think u r right.👍

 

[Anaita]

Thanks a zillion Anaita ...


For a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme with a Km = 1 mM, which of the following represents the effect on the velocity if is changed from 10 mM to 20 mM? (Assume that the enzyme obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics.)

Small decrease
Small increase
Twofold decrease
Twofold increase
Twentyfold increase

Can i pl get a logical explanation for this....

What occurs primarily in adults and is characterized by increased airway resistance, decreased diffusing capacity of the lung, and chronic/permanent hypoxia?

Decreased arterial pressure upon standing is compensated by

decreased heart rate.
dilation of mesenteric vessels.
constriction of systemic arterioles. Answer ... pls explain
dilation of venules


The clearance rate for a substance that is completely removed from the blood during one pass through the kidney is equal to which of the following?

Renal plasma flow.. answer
Filtration fraction
Urinary excretion rate
Glomerular filtration rate
Tubular transport maximum

I don't uderstand during one pass 😕 do they mean all of it is being filtered and none is being reabsorbed or secreted ?

Answer to the disease occuring primarily in adults is COPD ( Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)

 

[teethie]

..

Anaita 🙂 can't thank you enough... thanku soooooooo much !!!!

another Q -

Central chemoreceptor ( medulla ) is sensitive to H+ increase--------👍

Peripheral chemoreceptor ( aortic / carotid body) is sentitive to
High Pco2, low O2 ,High H+ -----------------👍
and very important point is only peripheral chemoreceptores respond to hypoxia


is this correct ??

 

[Anaita]

While lying down blood vol is evenly distributed along the vascular system and vascular tone is even across the body. Upon standing, gravity causes blood to pool in the lower limbs, resulting in reduced Cardiac filling, therefore cardiac output and BP. Activation of the symp nervous system causes vasoconstriction to reduce the pooling and indirectly correct the relative hypovolemia to restore blood pressure back to normal.

 

[R19]

i know this qn has been discussed b4 but i couldnt find a definite ans so here its again-
Q-in lateral excursion on a pt with ideal occlusion,the mesial cusp ridge of the mand first premolar contacts the
1.distolingual surface of max canine
2.distolingual slope of buccal cusp of max first premolar
3.mesiolingual slope of buccal cusp of max first premolar
4.none of the above

Q.in CR cusp tip of distolingual cusp of perm mand first molar
1.contacts the distolingual surface of opposing tooth
2.contacts the lingual groove of opposing molar
3.ascends above middle third of opp crown
4.functions above plane of orientation
5.has no antagonist

Q.in Ideal ICP max LI opposes
a.incisal edge of mand LI
b.MMR and DMR of mand LI
C.DMR of mand LI
d.the mand canine
e.no teeth at incisal edge (the correct ans is option a,d and e but aren't a and c opposite of each other???)

 

[Anaita]

Wish you all the best Cindrella and hey teethie.. i need to get back to my Kaplan Histology notes 🙂

 

[Cindrella]

While lying down blood vol is evenly distributed along the vascular system and vascular tone is even across the body. Upon standing, gravity causes blood to pool in the lower limbs, resulting in reduced Cardiac filling, therefore cardiac output and BP. Activation of the symp nervous system causes vasoconstriction to reduce the pooling and indirectly correct the relative hypovolemia to restore blood pressure back to normal.

👍 thank you anaita and teethie

 

[teethie]

All the best CINDRELLA👍👍👍👍👍

 

[teethie]

..

i know this qn has been discussed b4 but i couldnt find a definite ans so here its again-
Q-in lateral excursion on a pt with ideal occlusion,the mesial cusp ridge of the mand first premolar contacts the
1.distolingual surface of max canine
2.distolingual slope of buccal cusp of max first premolar
3.mesiolingual slope of buccal cusp of max first premolar------👍CORRECT IF WRONG

4.none of the above

Q.in CR cusp tip of distolingual cusp of perm mand first molar
1.contacts the distolingual surface of opposing tooth
2.contacts the lingual groove of opposing molar-----------👍CORRECT IF WRONG

3.ascends above middle third of opp crown
4.functions above plane of orientation
5.has no antagonist


Q.in Ideal ICP max LI opposes
a.incisal edge of mand LI
b.MMR and DMR of mand LI
C.DMR of mand LI
d.the mand canine
e.no teeth at incisal edge (the correct ans is option a,d and e but aren't a and c opposite of each other???)
I THINK D and E-------

 

[Anaita]

4-The clearance rate for a substance that is completely removed from the blood during one pass through the kidney is equal to which of the following?

Renal plasma flow.. answer
Filtration fraction
Urinary excretion rate
Glomerular filtration rate
Tubular transport maximum

I don't uderstand during one pass 😕 do they mean all of it is being filtered and none is being reabsorbed or secreted ?

The question does not address the mechanism of emlimination of the substance from the blood stream. One Pass means passage of the complete blood volume once through the kidney. Thus if the blood is completely cleared of a substance during the passage through the kidney (whether by filteration or by secretion), then the clearance rate would automatically be equal to the rate of blood flowing through the kidney. Please note that any substance that gets reabsorbed after being once filtered would automatically require the blood to return to kidney for eliminating it during the second pass! Blood being cleared of a substance does not need to imply the mechanism of elimination (whether filteration of secretion) but is only a quantitative statement.

Meanwhile, I know you will do very well in the exams, it is visble from your preparation. Your level of preparation has psyched me and made me realize the distance I still have to go.
DO WELL 👍👍👍

 

[Cindrella]

Thanks a lot for the wishes Teethie and anaita 🙂 ( Anaita .. i too still have a long way to go in these 2 days 😉 )
guys pls help me get my concepts clear these 2 days...

GC content is equal in RNA and DNA BOTH right ??

There was a Q i had come across that said G=C only in DNA !!!

 

[Cindrella]

The question does not address the mechanism of emlimination of the substance from the blood stream. One Pass means passage of the complete blood volume once through the kidney. Thus if the blood is completely cleared of a substance during the passage through the kidney (whether by filteration or by secretion), then the clearance rate would automatically be equal to the rate of blood flowing through the kidney. Please note that any substance that gets reabsorbed after being once filtered would automatically require the blood to return to kidney for eliminating it during the second pass! Blood being cleared of a substance does not need to imply the mechanism of elimination (whether filteration of secretion) but is only a quantitative statement.

Meanwhile, I know you will do very well in the exams, it is visble from your preparation. Your level of preparation has psyched me and made me realize the distance I still have to go.
DO WELL 👍👍👍

Awesome 👍👍👍

 

[Cindrella]

Q.in CR cusp tip of distolingual cusp of perm mand first molar
1.contacts the distolingual surface of opposing tooth
2.contacts the lingual groove of opposing molar-----------CORRECT IF WRONG ...Teethie isn't this relation in CO...

3.ascends above middle third of opp crown
4.functions above plane of orientation
5.has no antagonist

-----------------------------------------------------------------------
This Q is frm 1998 Q.62 Biochem physio
have no key fr this fr some weird reason..

Q-The activities of each of the following EXCEPT one contribute to calculus formation. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Alkaline phosphatase
Acid phosphatase
Pyrophophatase
Collagenase
Esterase

-----------------------

Q- High renal threshold fr a substance would mean , that substance is being reabsorbed and will NOT appear in the Urine ... right ?? 😕

-----------------------

PTH increases serum CALCIUM , decreases serum PHOSPHATE

Calcitonin decreases serum CALCIUM and PHOSPHATe and inhibits osteoclastic activity on bone.

is it correct ???????

 

[R19]

..

@teethie could u pls explain ans to first qn?
ans to second qn in ans key is 5.no antagonist....i guess thats bcoz guiding cusp TIPS never contact any tooth surface??this is only explanation i could find....is this the correct reason??
and about qn 3. and ans was a,d and e.im confused about this qn

 

[start6030]

..

true !!
cns receptors are sensitive to h+ and CO2 concentration

(nd even in that , CSF h+ is more effective than arterial h+ )


they r NOT sensitive to oxygen concentration


peripheral receptors :
overal , less sensitive than cns receptors.
but :
are sensitive to both carbon dioxide and OXYGEN
aNOTHER POINT IS : They are dependent on the PARTIAL PRESSURES AND NOT THE CONCENTRATION of the gas in blood .

 

[R19]

there's a qn about grooves present near or at embrasures that help stabilize the arch.what are these grooves??neva heard of dem😕

 

[start6030]

Can someone pls put up a summary of embryo development ... day/weeks/months in utero / after birth etc frm head to toe .... my exam is in 2 days ......

hey , good luck cindrella 🙂

 

[start6030]

Minute ventilation = TV x RR
Correction for ADS is given only for calculation of "alveolar ventilation"
so, the correct answer would be 400 x 18 = 7200 ml =7.2 L
Correct me if i'm wrong...

true , anaita..
but stil , if we have to calculate the alveolar ventilation , since the subject "consumes" 250 ml of oxygen from the tidal volume of 400 ml . , what is the ADS ???

isnt 250 actually TV-ADS ???

SO, WHAT WILL BE Alveolar ventilation ?
a. > (400-250) * 18

b. > 250 * 18

???
am confused.. kindly explain .

 

[Cindrella]

true !!
cns receptors are sensitive to h+ and CO2 concentration

(nd even in that , CSF h+ is more effective than arterial h+ )


they r NOT sensitive to oxygen concentration


peripheral receptors :
overal , less sensitive than cns receptors.
but :
are sensitive to both carbon dioxide and OXYGEN
aNOTHER POINT IS : They are dependent on the PARTIAL PRESSURES AND NOT THE CONCENTRATION of the gas in blood .

👍 thanku fr the wishes start6030

can someone pls tell me a brief summary of how ANDROGENS and THYRPID hormone have an effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue...
( sequence wise )

2004 pilot exam
Q-Pt has HPERPARATHYROIDISM .Which of the following will most likely be INCREASED in this patient?

Intestinal calcium absorption...my answer
Intestinal organic phosphate absorption
Renal calcitriol production
Renal calcium excretion.. ASDA answer
Renal organic phosphate excretion

 

[start6030]

👍 thanku fr the wishes start6030

can someone pls tell me a brief summary of how ANDROGENS and THYRPID hormone have an effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue...
( sequence wise )

2004 pilot exam
Q-Pt has HPERPARATHYROIDISM .Which of the following will most likely be INCREASED in this patient?

Intestinal calcium absorption...my answer
Intestinal organic phosphate absorption
Renal calcitriol production
Renal calcium excretion.. ASDA answer
Renal organic phosphate excretion

i also think the answer should be intestinal calcium reabsorption .phosphate excretion should increase and calcium should be reabsorbed into the body to result in increased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphate .

 

[Cindrella]

i also think the answer should be intestinal calcium reabsorption .phosphate excretion should increase and calcium should be reabsorbed into the body to result in increased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphate .

Thanks 👍 yep unless they r talking abt secondary hyperpara ! 😕

can u pl tell me the MOA od rifampin... i only know it inhibits transcription.


================

Which of the following explains why an increased filling of the ventricle during diastole causes a
more forceful heart beat? The increased ventricular volume

A-diminishes the refractory period of the ventricle.
B-increases end-diastolic fiber length.... ANSWER ?!.
C-facilitates conduction in the heart.
D-produces a less than optimal load.

======================
Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they

contact dentin... why can't it be this ?
are touched by odontoblast processes... ans by ASDA
are touched by stratum intermedium
contact stellate reticulum
contact neural crest mesoderm

==============================================
🙁
================================================

Which of the following describes the effect of a drug that inhibits renal carbonic anhydrase?

It decreases urea clearance.
It increases the Tm for glucose.
It increases the acidity of the urine.
It decreases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule

i didn't understand the Q !!
=======================================================
Which of the following characterizes both active transport and facilitated diffusion?

Hydrolysis of ATP
Competitive inhibition.. ASDA answer
Transport bidirectional
Transport against a concentration gradient

😕
=============================================

 

[start6030]

Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

The selectivity of these agents is a result of differences in the prokaryotic 70S ribosome and the 80S eukaryotic ribosome. Since mitochondrial ribosomes are similar to prokaryotic ribosomes, these antimetabolites can have some toxicity. They are mostly bacteriostatic.​

A. Antimicrobials that Bind to the 30S Ribosomal Subunit
1. Aminoglycosides (bactericidal)
Streptomycin, kanamycin, gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin, netilmicin and neomycin (topical)​

a. Mode of action
irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosome and freeze the 30S initiation complex (30S-mRNA-tRNA), so that no further initiation can occur.

b. Spectrum of Activity
many gram-negative and some gram-positive bacteria. not useful for anaerobic bacteria, since oxygen is required for uptake of the antibiotic.

c. Synergy
The aminoglycosides synergize with β-lactam antibiotics such as the penicillins. The β-lactams inhibit cell wall synthesis and thereby increase the permeability of the bacterium to the aminoglycosides.

​

2. Tetracyclines (bacteriostatic)
Tetracycline, minocycline and doxycycline​

a. Mode of action
The tetracyclines reversibly bind to the 30S ribosome and inhibit binding of aminoacyl-t-RNA to the acceptor site on the 70S ribosome.

b. Spectrum of activity -
broad spectrum antibiotics and are useful against intracellular bacteria

c. Resistance
Resistance to these antibiotics is common

d. Adverse effects
Destruction of normal intestinal flora often occurs, resulting in increased secondary infections. There can also be staining and impairment of the structure of bone and teeth​

3. Spectinomycin (bacteriostatic)​

a. Mode of action
reversibly interferes with mRNA interaction with the 30S ribosome. It is structurally similar to aminoglycosides

b. Spectrum of activity -
used in the treatment of penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae
​

B. Antimicrobials that Bind to the 50S Ribosomal Subunit

1. Chloramphenicol, lincomycin, clindamycin (bacteriostatic)​

a. Mode of action
bind to the 50S ribosome and inhibit peptidyl transferase activity.

b. Spectrum of activity​

• Chloramphenicol - Broad range​
• Lincomycin and clindamycin - Restricted range​

c. Resistance
Resistance to these antibiotics is common

d. Adverse effects
Chloramphenicol is toxic (bone marrow suppression) but it is used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis.​

2. Macrolides (bacteriostatic) - Erythromycin (also azithromycin, clarithromycin)​

a. Mode of action
inhibit translocation of the peptidyl tRNA from the A to the P site on the ribosome by binding to the 50S ribosomal 23S RNA.

b. Spectrum of activity
Gram-positive bacteria, Mycoplasma, Legionella

c. Resistance
common. ​

C. Antimicrobials that Interfere with Elongation Factors
1. Fusidic acid (bacteriostatic)​

a. Mode of action
binds to elongation factor G (EF-G) and inhibits release of EF-G from the EF-G/GDP complex.

b. Spectrum of activity
Fusidic acid is only effective against gram-positive bacteria such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus and Corynebacterium minutissimum.
​

IV. Inhibitors of Nucleic Acid Synthesis and Function
The selectivity of these agents is a result of differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic enzymes affected by the antimicrobial agent.​

A. Inhibitors of RNA Synthesis and Function
1. Rifampin, rifamycin, rifampicin (bactericidal)​

a. Mode of action
bind to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibit initiation of RNA synthesis.

b. Spectrum of activity
wide spectrum antibiotics but are used most commonly in the treatment of tuberculosis

c. Resistance
Resistance to these antibiotic is common.

d. Combination therapy
Since resistance is common, rifampin is usually used in combination therapy​

B. Inhibitors of DNA Synthesis and Function
1. Quinolones - nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin, oxolinic acid (bactericidal)​

a. Mode of action
bind to the A subunit of DNA gyrase (topoisomerase) and prevent supercoiling of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis.

b. Spectrum of activity -
Gram-positive cocci and are used in urinary tract infections

c. Resistance
This is common for nalidixic acid and is developing for ciprofloxacin

V. Antimetabolite Antimicrobials​

A. Inhibitors of Folic Acid Synthesis
The selectivity of these antimicrobials is a consequence of the fact that bacteria cannot use pre-formed folic acid and must synthesize their own folic acid. In contrast, mammalian cells use folic acid obtained from food.
1. Sulfonamides, sulfones (bacteriostatic)​

a. Mode of action
These antimicrobials are analogues of para-aminobenzoic acid and competitively inhibit formation of dihydropteric acid.

b. Spectrum of activity
They have a broad range activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and are used primarily in urinary tract infections and in Nocardia infections.


c. Resistance
common


d. Combination therapy
The sulfonamides are used in combination with trimethoprim. This combination blocks two distinct steps in folic acid metabolism and prevents the emergence of resistant strains.​

2. Trimethoprim, methotrexate, pyrimethamine (bacteriostatic)​

a. Mode of action
These antimicrobials bind to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibit formation of tetrahydrofolic acid.

b. Spectrum of activity
They have a broad range activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and are used primarily in urinary tract infections and in Nocardia infections.

c. Resistance
common


d. Combination therapy
These antimicrobials are used in combination with the sulfonamides. This combination blocks two distinct steps in folic acid metabolism and prevents the emergence of resistant strains.​

​

 

[Cindrella]

Thank you very very much start6030 👍

A few more Q ---

Q-Dietary deficiency in IODINE will elevate TSH or Thyroglobulin ?
It should be TSH ..right ?!

Q-3rd to largest cusp of mandibular 1st MOLAR is Distofacial / Distolingual ???
it goes MB > ML>DB>DL>Distal ... so shouldn't it be Distofacial ??

 

[makeit]

all ant and post teeth have 4 point angles.

thanks teethie

 

[Cindrella]

Q.in CR cusp tip of distolingual cusp of perm mand first molar
1.contacts the distolingual surface of opposing tooth
2.contacts the lingual groove of opposing molar-----------CORRECT IF WRONG ...Teethie isn't this relation in CO...

3.ascends above middle third of opp crown
4.functions above plane of orientation
5.has no antagonist

-----------------------------------------------------------------------
This Q is frm 1998 Q.62 Biochem physio
have no key fr this fr some weird reason..

Q-The activities of each of the following EXCEPT one contribute to calculus formation. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Alkaline phosphatase
Acid phosphatase
Pyrophophatase
Collagenase
Esterase

-----------------------

Q- High renal threshold fr a substance would mean , that substance is being reabsorbed and will NOT appear in the Urine ... right ?? 😕

-----------------------

PTH increases serum CALCIUM , decreases serum PHOSPHATE

Calcitonin decreases serum CALCIUM and PHOSPHATe and inhibits osteoclastic activity on bone.

is it correct ???????

👍 thanku fr the wishes start6030

can someone pls tell me a brief summary of how ANDROGENS and THYRPID hormone have an effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue...
( sequence wise )

2004 pilot exam
Q-Pt has HPERPARATHYROIDISM .Which of the following will most likely be INCREASED in this patient?

Intestinal calcium absorption...my answer
Intestinal organic phosphate absorption
Renal calcitriol production
Renal calcium excretion.. ASDA answer
Renal organic phosphate excretion

================

Which of the following explains why an increased filling of the ventricle during diastole causes a
more forceful heart beat? The increased ventricular volume

A-diminishes the refractory period of the ventricle.
B-increases end-diastolic fiber length.... ANSWER ?!.
C-facilitates conduction in the heart.
D-produces a less than optimal load.

======================
Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they

contact dentin... why can't it be this ?
are touched by odontoblast processes... ans by ASDA 👍
are touched by stratum intermedium
contact stellate reticulum
contact neural crest mesoderm

==============================================
🙁
================================================

Which of the following describes the effect of a drug that inhibits renal carbonic anhydrase?

It decreases urea clearance.
It increases the Tm for glucose.
It increases the acidity of the urine.
It decreases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule

i didn't understand the Q !!
=======================================================
Which of the following characterizes both active transport and facilitated diffusion?

Hydrolysis of ATP
Competitive inhibition.. ASDA answer
Transport bidirectional
Transport against a concentration gradient

😕
=============================================

Some1 pls clear these

 

[Cindrella]

Whch tooth has oblique ridge + transverse ridge ? primary maxi 1st M or primary Maxi 2nd M ?

Transverse ridges are seen in perm mandi 1st PM , mandi 1st m and primary mandi 1st M ... right ??

 

[teethie]

..

Whch tooth has oblique ridge + transverse ridge ? primary maxi 1st M or
primary Maxi 2nd M ?-------------------only oblique ridge is present. so not sure what answer fits here. r u sure question is asking both ridges..


Transverse ridges are seen in perm mandi 1st PM , mandi 1st m and primary mandi 1st M ... right ??-------yes👍

 

[teethie]

@cindrella:
Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they

contact dentin... why can't it be this ?----------because it is not called predentin. if the option is predentin then it is the right answer.

are touched by odontoblast processes... ans by ASDA 👍
are touched by stratum intermedium
contact stellate reticulum
contact neural crest mesoderm

 

[R19]

Q diag of mand molars showin path of max cusps directed in Distobuccal direction.what is mand movement- lateral(non working side) or lateral protrusive??

Q.occlusal outline of perm mand molar is imilar to- trapeziod,square,circle or parallelogrm??

Q. How to differentiate mand CI right and left tooth from proximal view??

 

[teethie]

..

Q diag of mand molars showin path of max cusps directed in Distobuccal direction.what is mand movement-
lateral(non working side) ---------------------answer👍
or lateral protrusive??-----no because in lat protrusive path will be distolingual.

Q.occlusal outline of perm mand molar is imilar to- trapeziod,
square,circle or parallelogrm??
it is rhomboidal.

Q. How to differentiate mand CI right and left tooth from proximal view
?? may be mesioincisal will be slightly more sharper than disto incisal well , there is no other feature to distinguish. very symmetrical tooth.

 

[teethie]

cindrella; see below:

Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
(a) Fibroclasts;
(b) Osteoblasts;
(c) Macrophages;
(d) Cementoblasts
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (c) only
C. (b) and (d)
D. (d) only
E. All of the above ANSWER------------yes👍

you have asked one question of type of collagen in cementum, so answer is it is type 1 collagen. i just found it.

 

[Cindrella]

@ teethie .. yup the Question mentioned both oblique and transverse ridge .... its from crack and their answer is Maxi primary 1st M .. i disagree

 

[Cindrella]

cementum , dentin , PDL , connective tissue- type 1 collagen ...right ?

carrtilage type 2 collagen

bone .. type 1 collagen ? i confirmed it is type 1 👍

@ teethie - thanks for confirming....

 

[Cindrella]

1-usually DMR is longer than MMR except PERMANENT maxi 1st PM and PRIMARY maxillay canine

2-teeth begin to develop at 4 weeks right.... the tooth bud ?

3-dentin is prominent at bell stage

4-For cementum to form hertwigs epithelial root sheath needs to go away
what changes occur for root dentin to form ?

5-primary teeth begin calcification at ? earliest 4 months in utero ?

6- age of enamel completion of primary teeth is 6-10 week s AFTER birth ??

7- shape at the cervical cross section of maxillary 1st PM is kidney , maxillary 2nd PM is ? , Maxi 1st M is triangular , maxi 2nd M is triangular

8-shape at the cervical cross section of madibular 1st PM is oval , madi 2nd PM is ? , mandi 1st M is rectangular , mandi 2nd M is retangular

9- occlusal outline of maxi 1st PM rectangle , 2nd PM rectangle , 1st M rhomboid , 2nd M rhomboid

10- Occlusal outline of mandibular 1st PM is square , 2nd PM square , 1st M trapezoid , 2nd M rectangle

11- facial view of premolar 's is Maxi and mandi ? Facial view of maxi and mandi canine is PENTAGONAL>.... rigt ? bt PM also have those 5 sides :confused :
is it correct ?

 

[teethie]

cindrella: i checked in Mc Donalds and it says oblique ridge present in max primary 2nd molar, they do not mention abt ti in primary 1 st molar.
so lets say this can be an error in crack.

abt collagen: pdl has type 1 and type 3.
yes bone has type 1.

@ teethie .. yup the Question mentioned both oblique and transverse ridge .... its from crack and their answer is Maxi primary 1st M .. i disagree

 

[R19]

..

@teethie-i thought of same ans for qn 1 but in ans key it was lateral protrusive.guess ans key is wrong.
2nd QN i cant differentiate whether its occlusal crown outline that is askd or occlusal table??bcoz if its oclusal table wont that be rectangular??