Nbd 2 Questions

[dentistgal]

---

Members don't see this ad.

1) Which of the folllowing statements describe composite resins
I They can be placed and finished in the same appointment.
II. They are more color stable than unfilled resins.
III. They are similar to Amalgam with respect to coefficient of Thermal expansion.
IV. The finished surface tends to be somewhat rough.
Answer- A - I , II B. I ,IV C. I, III IV , D. II , III , E. II , III ,IV F. All the above

2) Pulpal irritation would not be expected from a restorative material , provided the minimum thickness of the material was
A 0.2 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 1 mm D. 2 mm E. 3 mm

 

[pendejodo]

vPregnancy short acting barbiturate brevitol

Pregnancy Category B—Reproduction studies have been performed in rabbits and rats at doses up to 4 and 7 times the human dose respectively and have revealed no evidence of harm to the fetus due to methohexital sodium. There are, however, no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. Because animal reproduction studies are not always predictive of human response, this drug should be used during pregnancy only if clearly needed.


Labor and Delivery

 

[MitPat]

.107 why should the wax pattern be washed by soap water before it is invested
increase surface wetting ability
a child with post operational lip swelling is most likely to have
a. allergy to the local anesthesia
b. bitten on his lip ---- correct ans..
c. accidental vascular injection

..110 what is the most likely post operative side effect of bilateral sagittal split osteotomy
a. instability
b. nerve damage ??-- correct ans..
c. devitalization of teeth
d. relapse

..111 which nerve would the ramus split osteotomy most likely damage?-- INFERIOR ALV NERVE
for extracting of third molar, the following conditions would make the operation easier, except?
a. elastic bone
b. conical roots
c. soft tissue impaction
d. space within tooth bud is small-- correct ans.

..119 the toxic effect of sulf ram is produced by which of its metabolites?
a. acetyl aldehyde- correct ans..
b. formaldehyde
c. glutaraldehyde

..124 what is the most definite way to differentiate ameloblastoma, and odontogenic keratocyst?
a. smear cytology- correct ans..
b. reactive light microscopy
c. reflective microscopy

..163 radiographically there is a widening of the periodontal ligament space around all the teeth. What is your initial diagnosis
a. earliest sign of osteosarcoma
b. scleroderma--correct ans..
c. hyperparathyroidism
d. fibrous dysplasia

..176when moving tooth orthodontically where is the center of resistance
a. at cervical margin
b. half way down the root
c. at apex
d. 2/3 up from the apex-- possible correct ans..??

. A)the role intended for epinephrine when administered to counteract the anaphylactic shock that can result from the sudden release of histamine in a severe allergic response .

B)a drug that blocks the action of epinphrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them

C)a subs tance that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor


1 pharma cologic antaggonist
2 partial agonist
3 physiologic antagonist
4 chemical antagonist
5 non competetive antagonist


.53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
.
thanks in adv for your reply!
.

Keep sending great Q..................

 

[MitPat]

please start some FPD and RPD question if you have a good one.

Best possible treatment for 4 unit bridge. in premolar region.If a patient is a bus driver and ready to spend money for dental treatment.Perio condition 3-4mm pocket in ant region, overall healthy intraoral condition.
1- FPD
2- RPD
3- Implants.

Thanks.

 

[perav]

please start some FPD and RPD question if you have a good one.

Best possible treatment for 4 unit bridge. in premolar region.If a patient is a bus driver and ready to spend money for dental treatment.Perio condition 3-4mm pocket in ant region, overall healthy intraoral condition.
1- FPD
2- RPD
3- Implants.

Thanks.

if he is ready to spend money go for implants

 

[ash23wariya]

the role intended for epinephrine when administered to counteract the anaphylactic shock that can result from the sudden release of histamine in a severe allergic response .---Physiological antagonist Answer

B)a drug that blocks the action of epinphrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them ----antagonist

C)a subs tance that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor


1 pharma cologic antaggonist
2 partial agonist
3 physiologic antagonist
4 chemical antagonist
5 non competetive antagonist[/QUOTE]

 

[dentalgirl1]

Originally Posted by emmass
1. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis?
1. Loss of stippling
2. Gingival hyperplasia
3. Bleeding on probing
4. Increased probing depth
A. (1)(2)(3) B. (1) (3) C. (2) (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above

2. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the lagest numbers in response to the accumulation of plague?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes
B. PMNs
C. Macrophages
D. Lymphocytes
E. Mast cells

3. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. Saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. Plaque on his teeth
D. Lactic acid in his mouth.

4. With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by
A. gram-positive organisms
B. gram-negative organisms
C. diplococcal organisms
D. spirochtes.

5. which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root casnal?
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacilli
D. Enterococci
E. Staphylococcus albus
6. The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is
A. higher kVp
B. proper fitration
C. higj speed film
D. collimation of the primary beam

7. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-years old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron
B. apply a radiation protection badge
C. use high speed film
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp
E. take a panoramic film only

8. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces
2. periapical granuloma
3. traumatic injury
4. cementoma
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above

9. Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?
1. Enlargement 2. Bleeding 3. Ulceration 4. atrophy
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above

 

[perav]

Originally Posted by emmass
1. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis?
1. Loss of stippling
2. Gingival hyperplasia
3. Bleeding on probing
4. Increased probing depth
A. (1)(2)(3) B. (1) (3) C. (2) (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above
2. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the lagest numbers in response to the accumulation of plague?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes
B. PMNsC. Macrophages
D. Lymphocytes
E. Mast cells

3. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. Saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. Plaque on his teethD. Lactic acid in his mouth.

4. With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by
gram-positive organisms
B. gram-negative organismsC. diplococcal organisms
D. spirochtes.

5. which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root casnal?
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacilli
D. Enterococci
E. Staphylococcus albus
6. The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is
A. higher kVp
B. proper fitration
C. higj speed filmD. collimation of the primary beam

7. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-years old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron
B. apply a radiation protection badge
C. use high speed filmD. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp
E. take a panoramic film only

8. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces
2. periapical granuloma
3. traumatic injury
4. cementoma
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above
9. Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?
1. Enlargement 2. Bleeding 3. Ulceration 4. atrophy
A. 1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above

ans

 

[twinfish]

ans

Hi,perav,
thanks for ans. Just wondering the last one. was blood dyscrasia causing gingival atrophy? Could you explain it?
lots of thanks,
twin

 

[perav]

Hi,perav,
thanks for ans. Just wondering the last one. was blood dyscrasia causing gingival atrophy? Could you explain it?
lots of thanks,
twin

teh because i wondered about that too . but due to gingival enlagement we get a shiny appearence of the gingiva .that is due to atrophy of the epithelium

 

[perav]

when preparing the distal of amalgam to achieve a amalgam class 2
proximal box prepared irst
dovetail prepared first
incial angle should be removed first
gingival margin below gingival tissue

 

[sweetgal]

when preparing the distal of amalgam to achieve a amalgam class 2
proximal box prepared irst
dovetail prepared first
incial angle should be removed first
gingival margin below gingival tissue

i believe dovetail is prepared first....correct me if i am wrong...

plzz answer this with explanation,,
at 90 kvp and 15mA at a target film distance of 8inches,the exposure time for a film is 1/2sec.under the same situation,exposure time at 16inches is:

4sec
2sec
1sec
1/4 sec

thank you

 

[Marling Espinos]

13 Year Old With Caries What Would You Put In The Class 1 Posterior ?
Amalgam
Direct Composite
Indirect Composite
Resin Modified Glass Inomer

Ans....Amalgam..you never put composites on young pt. with multiples caries incidence...

 

[Marling Espinos]

amalgam..., never put composites on posterior teeth on young pts. with multiples caries incidence...

 

[pendejodo]

[hello everyone I postpone my test even if only I need one point I hope someone take the test before me all the best ..................va

 

[perav]

when preparing the distal of amalgam to achieve a amalgam class 2
proximal box prepared irst
dovetail prepared first
incial angle should be removed first
gingival margin below gingival tissue

does anyone know the bolton analysis of tooth measurment .

 

[Milley]

Atropine is useful in organophosphorous poisoning by inhibiting
A. Peripheral cholinergic actions
B. Sympathetic nerve fibres
C. Both central and peripheral actions
D. Central cholinergic actions

I think C is the ans. as atropine is muscuranic receptor blocker and muscuranic receptors are present in effector organs and CNS.
Please correct me if I am wrong 🙂

 

[sweetgal]

does anyone know the bolton analysis of tooth measurment .

hi perav thanks for correcting me,,
bolton anlysis:A method developed by Wayne Bolton for the evaluation of tooth-size discrepancies (mesiodistal crown diameter) between the upper and lower arches.
(mandibular sum of mesiodistal widths/maxillary sum of mesiodistal widths)x100=total index

 

[sweetgal]

I think C is the ans. as atropine is muscuranic receptor blocker and muscuranic receptors are present in effector organs and CNS.
Please correct me if I am wrong 🙂

hi milley u r absolutely right,,i have confirmed on this🙂

 

[pendejodo]

hello, t planing in diferent cases one , teen , child and adullt . medical compromised, cardiac pt , anybady can explain the phases is going to be in the test . the 2 day is very important any good web side for second day clinical cases can someone explain about implant tx planning, kind of implant, types just the basis.........................va

 

[perav]

the severity of gingivitis will vary with hormonal changes during pregnancy .which of the foolowing stages of pregnancy are hormonal levels of progesterone and eastrogen the highest ?

first trimester
second "
third "
during post parum (breast feeding)

which of the foll considered an antibody def disorder ?

thrombocytopenia
aids
chediak higashi syndrome
sickle cell anaemia

trauma from occlusion refers to all the foll except

occlusion produces injury to to the apparatus
occlusal trauma
injury to the attachment apparatus as a result of excessive occlusal forces
none of above .

 

[cavity79]

orthodontic treatment precedes orthognathic surgery in treating malocclusion.
is this statement true or false

thanks,
cavity79

 

[perav]

orthodontic treatment precedes orthognathic surgery in treating malocclusion.
is this statement true or false

thanks,
cavity79

true .since if any camoflage is needed can be done with ortho . before proceed to orthognathic surgery

 

[cavity79]

true .since if any camoflage is needed can be done with ortho . before proceed to orthognathic surgery

Thanks for ur response
cavity79

 

[dentalgirl1]

Please correct me if I am wrong


q)which pulp horn in child is most susceptible to exposure?

the office bleaching changes the shade through all except
1)dehydration-Ans
2)etching tooth
3)oxidation of colorant
4)surface deminearalization


50 what is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalographa. nasion-menton
b. ANS-menton
c. A-menton-Answe[/I]r
d. A-B

124 what is the most definite way to differentiate ameloblastoma, and odontogenic keratocyst?a. smear cytology
b. reactive light microscopy-[I]answer[/I]
c. reflective microscopy

[B]The percentage of a specific LA which is present in the base form when injected into tissue whose pH is 7.4 is inversely proportional to the Pka of that agent. Onset is faster,duration is longer[/B]
Onset is slower,duration is longer
Duration same,onset is slower
Onset and duration same

which of the following injections have positive inspiration
1)IA 10-15%-answer[/I]
2)akisino
#)infraorbital
$)gow gate 2%
mental nerve

asprin stops pain by
1)stoping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord-answer2)syopping the signal transduction in the cortex
3)interfering with the signal trasnduction in the cns
4)stopping local signal transduction and production

What is advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
Better fl released
Better tensile strength
Require less water
Higher expansion

Which feature provide the bond onlay the most retention?

4. what happens with the intercanine distance after mixed dentition?
a. increased
b. decreased
c. no change

11. all are advantage of hybrid ionomer except
a. esthetics
b. bond strength
c. wear resistance
d. coefficient of thermal expansion-answer


12. which of the ff cause bone loss
a. C3a, C5a
b. endotoxin
c. interleukin-answe[/I]r
d. B-glucoronidase

Advantage of resin veneer over porcelain veneer
Cost -answer
Esthetics
Tooth preparation

There are more detached plaques within supraging. Plaques than subgingival
Plaques. The detached plaques within subging area are the ones that are more
Toxic to tissue than attached plaques.
Both statements true
Both statement false
Etc.

When will the bull rule be utilized with the selective grindingWorking side
Balance side
Protrusive movement
All of the above

Ideal composite for class V
Microfill/polish better
Microfil/stronger
Hybrid/poish
Hybrid/stronger

. Organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses includea. Fusobacterium
b. Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides-[I]answer
.
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion

. A light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continous
d. indirect

Alveoloplasty with excessive flap reflection,with primary closure, what is the sequela?
Shortened vestibule
Removed too much bone
Post op infection

Upright a max 1st molar with lingual and omega loop? What happens?

 

[DDS NO 1]

ANS THESE PLS

1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction
b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional
8 The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride primarily involves urinary excretion with the remaining portion found largely in the
a. teeth
b. muscle tissue
c. skeletal tissue
d. epidermal tissue
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes
20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space
24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally
25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels
27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round
29 which of the following is primarily communicated nonverbally
a. ideas
b. beliefs
c. thoughts
d. emotions
e. concepts
30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base area
d. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive
32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the child’s diet and caries activity
c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure
36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct
37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fibrosis
e. congenital heart disease
41. to enhance a patient’s comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patient’s oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
42. which of the following groups of muscle influences the molding of the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for an edentulous patient
a. hypoglossus, mylohyoid, medial pterygoid, digastric
b. mylohyoid, styloglossus, medial pterygoid, depressor anguli oris
c. palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal constrictor, mylohyoid, genioglossus
d. genioglossus, mylohyoid, middle pharyngeal constrictor, posterior belly of the digastric.
43. after the initial visit, a patient’s decision to return is MOST likely to be influence by the dentist
a. interpersonal skills
b. office design
c. office location
d. technical competence
e. educational credentials
44. which of the following can be a clinical feature of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
a. discrete, spherical vesical
b. temperature-sensitive teeth
c. solitary localized edematous gingival lesion
d. necrotic destruction of interdental gingival tissues
45. increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following
a. photon speed
b. photon wavelength
c. number of photons generated
d. voltage between anode and cathode
e. effective energy of the resultant beam
46. which of the following should be done when a patient presents with a low, attached maxillary frenum, accompanied by a 3 mm diastema in the early transitional dentition
a. perform a frenectomy when it is first observed.
b. observe until after the eruption of the permanent canines
c. render treatment before the complete eruption of the maxillary incisors
d. instruct the patient to wear an elastic around the teeth to close the diastema
47. an examination of a complete denture patient reveals that the retromolar pad contacts the maxillary tuberosity at the occlusal vertical dimension. To remedy this situation, which of the following should be performed
a. reduced the maxillary tuberosity by surgery
b. cover the tuberosity with a metal base
c. increase the occlusal vertical dimension
d. reduce the retromolar pad by surgery
e. omit coverage of the retromolar pad by the mandibular denture.
48. the ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept
a. autonomy
b. competence
c. beneficial
d. paternalism
49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting denture
d. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

 

[DDS NO 1]

ANS THESE TO

51. according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry
52. a patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient
a. a lingual bar
b. a lingual plate
c. a lingual bar with a Kennedy bar
d. a lingual plate with interruptions in the plate at the diastemas.
53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
54. which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from the acrylic resin of the denture base
a. excessive occlusal forces were applied
b. the occlusal surfaces were not placed in the teeth
c. retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
d. the mold was contaminated with wax before processing
5. before beginning tooth preparation, the dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. establish the convenience form
b. establish the resistance and retention form
c. prevent over cutting and overextension
d. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins.
56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion
57.a child has a sore ulceration of the lower lip. There is no history of obvious trauma. The ulceration appeared several hours after the patient received dental treatment. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. herpes labialis
b. postanesthetic lip bite
c. chemical burn from aspirin
d. aphthous ulcers secondary to stress
e. allergic stomatitis to the rubber dam.
58 to prove its clinical effectiveness, an antimicrobial agent must demonstrate that it
a. reduces plaque mass
b. helps to reduce disease
c. specifically kills aerobic bacteria
d. specifically kills anaerobic bacteria
59. a 40 years old female patient complains of a painful rapidly developing ulcer on the left side of her palate. This lesion appears crater like and measure 1.5 cm. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. actinomycosis
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. necrotizing sialometaplasia
60. examination reveals a soft, fluctuant, tender swelling in the middle of the hard palate. The teeth test vital. Radiographs reveals a radiolucent area projected between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. Which of the following cysts represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. nasolabial
b. median palatal
c. periapical
d. nasopalatine duct
e. incisive papilla
61. incomplete removal of bacteria, pulp debris, and dentinal shaving is commonly caused by failure to irrigate thoroughly. Another reason is failure to
a. use broaches
b. use a chelating agent
c. obtain a straight line access
d. use gates-Glidden burs
62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment
63. a 22 years old male patient complaint of dull pain in the posterior left mandibular region. A radiograph made of this area reveals not only a radiolucency around the first molar roots, but also a radiopacity of bone peripheral to this radiolucency. Which of the following BEST explains this conditions? It is
a. normal for this patient
b. a developmental abnormal
c. an error in radiograph technique
d. a manifestation of systemic bone disease
e. a reaction to an apical inflammatory disease
64. a 34 years old patient present for a routine oral examination. She has six mandibular anterior teeth remaining in the mouth. She is asymptomatic and there is no evidence of decay or tooth destruction. Although slight periodontal disease is present. Radiographically, there are periapical radiolucency present on two mandibular central incisor. Electric pulp testing indicates all teeth are responsive in a small fashion. Which of the following is the treatment of choice
a. initiate root canal treatment on the two teeth
b. test cavities on mandibular central incisors
c. identify the dark, potentially necrotic pulp chambers by translumination
d. extract and replace teeth with a mandibular partial denture.
e. no treatment is necessary at this time
65. which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel(chalky white color mixed with brown spots)
a. microabrasion with HCL/pumice
b. vital tooth bleaching after root canal treatment
d. in office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide
66. patient who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force during
a. swallowing
b. mastication
c. centric relation
d. parafunctional movement
67. in which of the following teeth does the pulpal anatomy dictate a triangular-access cavity preparation
a. maxillary central incisor
b. maxillary first premolar
c. mandibular second premolar
d. mandibular canine
68. which of the following tissue is MOST sensitive to radiation
a. hemopoietic tissue
b. endothelium
c. skeletal muscle
d. adult brain
e. collagen
69. in communicating with children, which of the following should the dental team do
a. allow the patient to answer questions asked by the clinic at chairside
b. allow both the parent and the dentist to communicate simultaneously with the child
c. transmit word substitutes for dental procedures and equipment during the appointment
d. attain voice control to build the groundwork for future instructions
70. which of the following represents the purpose of an open-ended questions
a. to elicit specific information
b. to test a patient’s truthfulness
c. to gather medical/legal information
d. to produce maximal freedom in response
e. to probe the details about a specific topic
71. where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINE
b. lexus
c. dental literature online
72. what is common to all form of shock
a. neurogenic
b. unconsciousness
c. inadequate perfusion
d. hypovolemia
73. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. prevalence
d. incidence
74. 3.6 ml of prilocaine has how much anesthetic
a. 72 mg
b. 80mg
c. 144mg
d. 36mg
75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors
76. which can be used as a topical anesthetic
a. etidocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
77. a patient constantly questions and criticized the dentist. What should the dentist do
a. be silent
b. shout at the patient
c. state the criticism
d. clear the patients misconceptions
78. ratio of LD50 to ED50 gives
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. safety
d. toxicity
79. the rate of oral cancer in the US in the past 5 years is
a. increase
b. decrease
c. the same
80. which is the most sensitive to radiation
a. muscle
b. nerve
c. hematopoietic marrow
d. skin
81. after the first visit which of the following will cause the patient to return the MOST
a. office décor
b. front desk
c. interpersonal skills of the dentist
d. sterilization procedure
82. you notice a red area on the palatal of the tooth which was extracted on the previous day. The area is covered with white slough and is at site of the needle injection. Which is it most likely
a. aspirin burn
b. herpes
c. necrosis due to vasoconstriction
d. normal
83 where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve
a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa
d. pterygotympanic fissure
84. in an edentulous patient the tuberosity touches the retromolar pad. What should you do
a. reduce the pad
b. reduce both
c. reduce the tuberosity
d. do not put the borders of the CD on the pad
85. digitalis can lead to
a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponatremis
c. hypocalcemia
86. what is the name for the phenomena of porcelain appearing different under different lights
a. fluorescene
b. incandescence
c. metamerism
d. isomerism
87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer
88. a black female has multiple periapical lucency in the mandibular incisor area. What is the treatment
a. extract
b. RCT
c. no treatment
d. periapical surgery
89. tetracycline stain is incorporated during
a. apposition
b. mineralization
c. calcification
90. Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE periodontal forces are best along the long axes of tooth
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong
91. how would you treat an unconscious diabetic
a. IV insulin
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. 50% dextrose in water
d. orange juice
92. what drug is used to treat HIV patient
a. acyclovir
b. amantadine
c. zidovudine
d. carbamazepine
93. how stress and illness related?
Stress can lead to illness and illness is stressful
94. which is the most personal relationship of dentist to patient
a. sit directly in front of the patient
b. touch the patient’s shoulder
c. lean slightly towards the patient
d. sit at least 2 feet away
95. after the dentist explains the treatment plan the patient is sad. How will he/she express this
a. gesture
b. ideas
c. eye sign and facial expression
d. by shouting at the dentist
96. which is the most important sign of ankylosis of tooth
a. dull sounding
b. resonant
c. cessation of eruption
d. cross bite
97. in the absent of the permanent tooth, the deciduous tooth will
a. not resorb
b. resorb like usually
c. resorb slowly
d. resorb at the faster rate
98. which of the following is least useful in endo diagnosis of children
a. percussion
b. palpation
c. electric test
d. thermal test
99. which of the following is most likely to cause pulp necrosis
a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. lateral displacement
d. concussion
100. the initial instrumentation in endo treatment is done until
a. radiographic apex
b. DEJ junction
c. CDJ junction
d. cemental pulpal junction

 

[dentalgirl1]

I think these questions have already been answered but here
they are again.

Please don't forget about my questions my exam is in 2 day!!!


Originally Posted by DDS NO 1
1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reactionb. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heatb. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 yearsc. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional
8 The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride primarily involves urinary excretion with the remaining portion found largely in the
a. teeth
b. muscle tissue
c. skeletal tissued. epidermal tissue
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
f. osteosarcoma
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes
20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space
24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally
25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relationsd. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels
27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round
29 which of the following is primarily communicated nonverbally
a. ideas
b. beliefs
c. thoughts
d. emotions
e. concepts
30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base aread. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive
32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the child’s diet and caries activity
c. the child age and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure
36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct
37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsionb. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflexd. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fibrosis
e. congenital heart disease
41. to enhance a patient’s comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patient’s oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
42. which of the following groups of muscle influences the molding of the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for an edentulous patient
a. hypoglossus, mylohyoid, medial pterygoid, digastric
b. mylohyoid, styloglossus, medial pterygoid, depressor anguli oris
c. palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal constrictor, mylohyoid, genioglossus
d. genioglossus, mylohyoid, middle pharyngeal constrictor, posterior belly of the digastric.
43. after the initial visit, a patient’s decision to return is MOST likely to be influence by the dentist
a. interpersonal skills
b. office design
c. office location
d. technical competence
e. educational credentials
44. which of the following can be a clinical feature of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
a. discrete, spherical vesical
b. temperature-sensitive teeth
c. solitary localized edematous gingival lesion
d. necrotic destruction of interdental gingival tissues
45. increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following
a. photon speed
b. photon wavelength
c. number of photons generatedd. voltage between anode and cathode
e. effective energy of the resultant beam
46. which of the following should be done when a patient presents with a low, attached maxillary frenum, accompanied by a 3 mm diastema in the early transitional dentition
a. perform a frenectomy when it is first observed.
b. observe until after the eruption of the permanent canines
c. render treatment before the complete eruption of the maxillary incisors
d. instruct the patient to wear an elastic around the teeth to close the diastema
47. an examination of a complete denture patient reveals that the retromolar pad contacts the maxillary tuberosity at the occlusal vertical dimension. To remedy this situation, which of the following should be performed
a. reduced the maxillary tuberosity by surgery
b. cover the tuberosity with a metal base
c. increase the occlusal vertical dimension
d. reduce the retromolar pad by surgery
e. omit coverage of the retromolar pad by the mandibular denture.
48. the ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept
a. autonomyb. competence
c. beneficial
d. paternalism
49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting dentured. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is falsed. the first statement is false, the second is true

 

[dentalgirl1]

I think these questions have already been answered but here
they are again.

Please don't forget about my questions my exam is in 2 day!!!


Originally Posted by DDS NO 1
1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reactionb. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heatb. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 yearsc. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional
8 The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride primarily involves urinary excretion with the remaining portion found largely in the
a. teeth
b. muscle tissue
c. skeletal tissued. epidermal tissue
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
f. osteosarcoma
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes
20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space
24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally
25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relationsd. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels
27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round
29 which of the following is primarily communicated nonverbally
a. ideas
b. beliefs
c. thoughts
d. emotions
e. concepts
30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base aread. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive
32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the child’s diet and caries activity
c. the child age and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure
36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct
37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsionb. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflexd. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fibrosis
e. congenital heart disease
41. to enhance a patient’s comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patient’s oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
42. which of the following groups of muscle influences the molding of the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for an edentulous patient
a. hypoglossus, mylohyoid, medial pterygoid, digastric
b. mylohyoid, styloglossus, medial pterygoid, depressor anguli oris
c. palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal constrictor, mylohyoid, genioglossus
d. genioglossus, mylohyoid, middle pharyngeal constrictor, posterior belly of the digastric.
43. after the initial visit, a patient’s decision to return is MOST likely to be influence by the dentist
a. interpersonal skills
b. office design
c. office location
d. technical competence
e. educational credentials
44. which of the following can be a clinical feature of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
a. discrete, spherical vesical
b. temperature-sensitive teeth
c. solitary localized edematous gingival lesion
d. necrotic destruction of interdental gingival tissues
45. increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following
a. photon speed
b. photon wavelength
c. number of photons generatedd. voltage between anode and cathode
e. effective energy of the resultant beam
46. which of the following should be done when a patient presents with a low, attached maxillary frenum, accompanied by a 3 mm diastema in the early transitional dentition
a. perform a frenectomy when it is first observed.
b. observe until after the eruption of the permanent canines
c. render treatment before the complete eruption of the maxillary incisors
d. instruct the patient to wear an elastic around the teeth to close the diastema
47. an examination of a complete denture patient reveals that the retromolar pad contacts the maxillary tuberosity at the occlusal vertical dimension. To remedy this situation, which of the following should be performed
a. reduced the maxillary tuberosity by surgery
b. cover the tuberosity with a metal base
c. increase the occlusal vertical dimension
d. reduce the retromolar pad by surgery
e. omit coverage of the retromolar pad by the mandibular denture.
48. the ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept
a. autonomyb. competence
c. beneficial
d. paternalism
49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting dentured. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is falsed. the first statement is false, the second is true

 

[dentalgirl1]

Originally Posted by DDS NO 1
51. according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry
52. a patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient
a. a lingual bar
b. a lingual plate
c. a lingual bar with a Kennedy bar
d. a lingual plate with interruptions in the plate at the diastemas.
53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
54. which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from the acrylic resin of the denture base
a. excessive occlusal forces were applied
b. the occlusal surfaces were not placed in the teeth
c. retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
d. the mold was contaminated with wax before processing
5. before beginning tooth preparation, the dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. establish the convenience form
b. establish the resistance and retention form
c. prevent over cutting and overextension
d. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins.
56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion
57.a child has a sore ulceration of the lower lip. There is no history of obvious trauma. The ulceration appeared several hours after the patient received dental treatment. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. herpes labialis
b. postanesthetic lip bite
c. chemical burn from aspirin
d. aphthous ulcers secondary to stress
e. allergic stomatitis to the rubber dam.
58 to prove its clinical effectiveness, an antimicrobial agent must demonstrate that it
a. reduces plaque mass
b. helps to reduce disease
c. specifically kills aerobic bacteria
d. specifically kills anaerobic bacteria
59. a 40 years old female patient complains of a painful rapidly developing ulcer on the left side of her palate. This lesion appears crater like and measure 1.5 cm. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. actinomycosis
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. necrotizing sialometaplasia
60. examination reveals a soft, fluctuant, tender swelling in the middle of the hard palate. The teeth test vital. Radiographs reveals a radiolucent area projected between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. Which of the following cysts represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. nasolabial
b. median palatal
c. periapical
d. nasopalatine duct
e. incisive papilla
61. incomplete removal of bacteria, pulp debris, and dentinal shaving is commonly caused by failure to irrigate thoroughly. Another reason is failure to
a. use broaches
b. use a chelating agent
c. obtain a straight line access
d. use gates-Glidden burs
62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment
63. a 22 years old male patient complaint of dull pain in the posterior left mandibular region. A radiograph made of this area reveals not only a radiolucency around the first molar roots, but also a radiopacity of bone peripheral to this radiolucency. Which of the following BEST explains this conditions? It is
a. normal for this patient
b. a developmental abnormal
c. an error in radiograph technique
d. a manifestation of systemic bone disease
e. a reaction to an apical inflammatory disease64. a 34 years old patient present for a routine oral examination. She has six mandibular anterior teeth remaining in the mouth. She is asymptomatic and there is no evidence of decay or tooth destruction. Although slight periodontal disease is present. Radiographically, there are periapical radiolucency present on two mandibular central incisor. Electric pulp testing indicates all teeth are responsive in a small fashion. Which of the following is the treatment of choice
a. initiate root canal treatment on the two teeth
b. test cavities on mandibular central incisors
c. identify the dark, potentially necrotic pulp chambers by translumination
d. extract and replace teeth with a mandibular partial denture.
e. no treatment is necessary at this time
65. which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel(chalky white color mixed with brown spots)
a. microabrasion with HCL/pumice
b. vital tooth bleaching after root canal treatment
d. in office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide
66. patient who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force during
a. swallowing
b. mastication
c. centric relation
d. parafunctional movement
67. in which of the following teeth does the pulpal anatomy dictate a triangular-access cavity preparation
a. maxillary central incisor
b. maxillary first premolar
c. mandibular second premolar
d. mandibular canine
68. which of the following tissue is MOST sensitive to radiation
a. hemopoietic tissue
b. endothelium
c. skeletal muscle
d. adult brain
e. collagen
69. in communicating with children, which of the following should the dental team do
a. allow the patient to answer questions asked by the clinic at chairside
b. allow both the parent and the dentist to communicate simultaneously with the child
c. transmit word substitutes for dental procedures and equipment during the appointmentd. attain voice control to build the groundwork for future instructions
70. which of the following represents the purpose of an open-ended questions
a. to elicit specific information
b. to test a patient’s truthfulness
c. to gather medical/legal information
d. to produce maximal freedom in response
e. to probe the details about a specific topic
71. where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINEb. lexus
c. dental literature online
72. what is common to all form of shock
a. neurogenic
b. unconsciousness
c. inadequate perfusion
d. hypovolemia
73. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivityc. prevalence
d. incidence
74. 3.6 ml of prilocaine has how much anesthetic
a. 72 mg
b. 80mg
c. 144mg
d. 36mg
75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors
76. which can be used as a topical anesthetic
a. etidocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
77. a patient constantly questions and criticized the dentist. What should the dentist do
a. be silent
b. shout at the patient
c. state the criticism
d. clear the patients misconceptions
78. ratio of LD50 to ED50 gives
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. safetyd. toxicity
79. the rate of oral cancer in the US in the past 5 years is
a. increase
b. decrease
c. the same
80. which is the most sensitive to radiation
a. muscle
b. nerve
c. hematopoietic marrow
d. skin
81. after the first visit which of the following will cause the patient to return the MOST
a. office décor
b. front desk
c. interpersonal skills of the dentist
d. sterilization procedure
82. you notice a red area on the palatal of the tooth which was extracted on the previous day. The area is covered with white slough and is at site of the needle injection. Which is it most likely
a. aspirin burn
b. herpes
c. necrosis due to vasoconstriction
d. normal
83 where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve
a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa
d. pterygotympanic fissure
84. in an edentulous patient the tuberosity touches the retromolar pad. What should you do
a. reduce the pad
b. reduce both
c. reduce the tuberosity
d. do not put the borders of the CD on the pad
85. digitalis can lead to
a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponatremis
c. hypocalcemia
86. what is the name for the phenomena of porcelain appearing different under different lights
a. fluorescene
b. incandescence
c. metamerismd. isomerism
87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer
88. a black female has multiple periapical lucency in the mandibular incisor area. What is the treatment
a. extract
b. RCT
c. no treatmentd. periapical surgery
89. tetracycline stain is incorporated during
a. apposition
b. mineralization
c. calcification
90. Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE periodontal forces are best along the long axes of tooth
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong
91. how would you treat an unconscious diabetic
a. IV insulin
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. 50% dextrose in waterd. orange juice
92. what drug is used to treat HIV patient
a. acyclovir
b. amantadine
c. zidovudined. carbamazepine
93. how stress and illness related?
Stress can lead to illness and illness is stressful
94. which is the most personal relationship of dentist to patient
a. sit directly in front of the patient
b. touch the patient’s shoulder
c. lean slightly towards the patient
d. sit at least 2 feet away
95. after the dentist explains the treatment plan the patient is sad. How will he/she express this
a. gesture
b. ideas
c. eye sign and facial expression
d. by shouting at the dentist
96. which is the most important sign of ankylosis of tooth
a. dull sounding
b. resonant
c. cessation of eruption
d. cross bite
97. in the absent of the permanent tooth, the deciduous tooth will
a. not resorb
b. resorb like usually
c. resorb slowlyd. resorb at the faster rate
98. which of the following is least useful in endo diagnosis of children
a. percussion
b. palpation
c. electric test
d. thermal test
99. which of the following is most likely to cause pulp necrosis
a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. lateral displacement
d. concussion
100. the initial instrumentation in endo treatment is done until
a. radiographic apex
b. DEJ junction
c. CDJ junctiond. cemental pulpal junction

 

[dentalgirl1]

Originally Posted by DDS NO 1
51. according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry
52. a patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient
a. a lingual bar
b. a lingual plate
c. a lingual bar with a Kennedy bar
d. a lingual plate with interruptions in the plate at the diastemas.
53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
54. which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from the acrylic resin of the denture base
a. excessive occlusal forces were applied
b. the occlusal surfaces were not placed in the teeth
c. retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
d. the mold was contaminated with wax before processing
5. before beginning tooth preparation, the dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. establish the convenience form
b. establish the resistance and retention form
c. prevent over cutting and overextension
d. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins.
56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion
57.a child has a sore ulceration of the lower lip. There is no history of obvious trauma. The ulceration appeared several hours after the patient received dental treatment. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. herpes labialis
b. postanesthetic lip bite
c. chemical burn from aspirin
d. aphthous ulcers secondary to stress
e. allergic stomatitis to the rubber dam.
58 to prove its clinical effectiveness, an antimicrobial agent must demonstrate that it
a. reduces plaque mass
b. helps to reduce disease
c. specifically kills aerobic bacteria
d. specifically kills anaerobic bacteria
59. a 40 years old female patient complains of a painful rapidly developing ulcer on the left side of her palate. This lesion appears crater like and measure 1.5 cm. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. actinomycosis
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. necrotizing sialometaplasia
60. examination reveals a soft, fluctuant, tender swelling in the middle of the hard palate. The teeth test vital. Radiographs reveals a radiolucent area projected between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. Which of the following cysts represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. nasolabial
b. median palatal
c. periapical
d. nasopalatine duct
e. incisive papilla
61. incomplete removal of bacteria, pulp debris, and dentinal shaving is commonly caused by failure to irrigate thoroughly. Another reason is failure to
a. use broaches
b. use a chelating agent
c. obtain a straight line access
d. use gates-Glidden burs
62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment
63. a 22 years old male patient complaint of dull pain in the posterior left mandibular region. A radiograph made of this area reveals not only a radiolucency around the first molar roots, but also a radiopacity of bone peripheral to this radiolucency. Which of the following BEST explains this conditions? It is
a. normal for this patient
b. a developmental abnormal
c. an error in radiograph technique
d. a manifestation of systemic bone disease
e. a reaction to an apical inflammatory disease64. a 34 years old patient present for a routine oral examination. She has six mandibular anterior teeth remaining in the mouth. She is asymptomatic and there is no evidence of decay or tooth destruction. Although slight periodontal disease is present. Radiographically, there are periapical radiolucency present on two mandibular central incisor. Electric pulp testing indicates all teeth are responsive in a small fashion. Which of the following is the treatment of choice
a. initiate root canal treatment on the two teeth
b. test cavities on mandibular central incisors
c. identify the dark, potentially necrotic pulp chambers by translumination
d. extract and replace teeth with a mandibular partial denture.
e. no treatment is necessary at this time
65. which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel(chalky white color mixed with brown spots)
a. microabrasion with HCL/pumice
b. vital tooth bleaching after root canal treatment
d. in office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide
66. patient who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force during
a. swallowing
b. mastication
c. centric relation
d. parafunctional movement
67. in which of the following teeth does the pulpal anatomy dictate a triangular-access cavity preparation
a. maxillary central incisor
b. maxillary first premolar
c. mandibular second premolar
d. mandibular canine
68. which of the following tissue is MOST sensitive to radiation
a. hemopoietic tissue
b. endothelium
c. skeletal muscle
d. adult brain
e. collagen
69. in communicating with children, which of the following should the dental team do
a. allow the patient to answer questions asked by the clinic at chairside
b. allow both the parent and the dentist to communicate simultaneously with the child
c. transmit word substitutes for dental procedures and equipment during the appointmentd. attain voice control to build the groundwork for future instructions
70. which of the following represents the purpose of an open-ended questions
a. to elicit specific information
b. to test a patient’s truthfulness
c. to gather medical/legal information
d. to produce maximal freedom in response
e. to probe the details about a specific topic
71. where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINEb. lexus
c. dental literature online
72. what is common to all form of shock
a. neurogenic
b. unconsciousness
c. inadequate perfusion
d. hypovolemia
73. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivityc. prevalence
d. incidence
74. 3.6 ml of prilocaine has how much anesthetic
a. 72 mg
b. 80mg
c. 144mg
d. 36mg
75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors
76. which can be used as a topical anesthetic
a. etidocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
77. a patient constantly questions and criticized the dentist. What should the dentist do
a. be silent
b. shout at the patient
c. state the criticism
d. clear the patients misconceptions
78. ratio of LD50 to ED50 gives
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. safetyd. toxicity
79. the rate of oral cancer in the US in the past 5 years is
a. increase
b. decrease
c. the same
80. which is the most sensitive to radiation
a. muscle
b. nerve
c. hematopoietic marrow
d. skin
81. after the first visit which of the following will cause the patient to return the MOST
a. office décor
b. front desk
c. interpersonal skills of the dentist
d. sterilization procedure
82. you notice a red area on the palatal of the tooth which was extracted on the previous day. The area is covered with white slough and is at site of the needle injection. Which is it most likely
a. aspirin burn
b. herpes
c. necrosis due to vasoconstriction
d. normal
83 where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve
a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa
d. pterygotympanic fissure
84. in an edentulous patient the tuberosity touches the retromolar pad. What should you do
a. reduce the pad
b. reduce both
c. reduce the tuberosity
d. do not put the borders of the CD on the pad
85. digitalis can lead to
a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponatremis
c. hypocalcemia
86. what is the name for the phenomena of porcelain appearing different under different lights
a. fluorescene
b. incandescence
c. metamerismd. isomerism
87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer
88. a black female has multiple periapical lucency in the mandibular incisor area. What is the treatment
a. extract
b. RCT
c. no treatmentd. periapical surgery
89. tetracycline stain is incorporated during
a. apposition
b. mineralization
c. calcification
90. Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE periodontal forces are best along the long axes of tooth
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong
91. how would you treat an unconscious diabetic
a. IV insulin
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. 50% dextrose in waterd. orange juice
92. what drug is used to treat HIV patient
a. acyclovir
b. amantadine
c. zidovudined. carbamazepine
93. how stress and illness related?
Stress can lead to illness and illness is stressful
94. which is the most personal relationship of dentist to patient
a. sit directly in front of the patient
b. touch the patient’s shoulder
c. lean slightly towards the patient
d. sit at least 2 feet away
95. after the dentist explains the treatment plan the patient is sad. How will he/she express this
a. gesture
b. ideas
c. eye sign and facial expression
d. by shouting at the dentist
96. which is the most important sign of ankylosis of tooth
a. dull sounding
b. resonant
c. cessation of eruption
d. cross bite
97. in the absent of the permanent tooth, the deciduous tooth will
a. not resorb
b. resorb like usually
c. resorb slowlyd. resorb at the faster rate
98. which of the following is least useful in endo diagnosis of children
a. percussion
b. palpation
c. electric test
d. thermal test
99. which of the following is most likely to cause pulp necrosis
a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. lateral displacement
d. concussion
100. the initial instrumentation in endo treatment is done until
a. radiographic apex
b. DEJ junction
c. CDJ junctiond. cemental pulpal junction

 

[dentalgirl1]

Please correct me if I am wrong


q)which pulp horn in child is most susceptible to exposure?

the office bleaching changes the shade through all except
1)dehydration-Ans
2)etching tooth
3)oxidation of colorant
4)surface deminearalization


50 what is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalographa. nasion-menton
b. ANS-menton
c. A-menton-Answer
d. A-B

124 what is the most definite way to differentiate ameloblastoma, and odontogenic keratocyst?a. smear cytology
b. reactive light microscopy-answer
c. reflective microscopy

The percentage of a specific LA which is present in the base form when injected into tissue whose pH is 7.4 is inversely proportional to the Pka of that agent. Onset is faster,duration is longer
Onset is slower,duration is longer
Duration same,onset is slower
Onset and duration same

which of the following injections have positive inspiration
1)IA 10-15%-answer
2)akisino
#)infraorbital
$)gow gate 2%
mental nerve

asprin stops pain by
1)stoping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord-answer2)syopping the signal transduction in the cortex
3)interfering with the signal trasnduction in the cns
4)stopping local signal transduction and production

What is advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
Better fl released
Better tensile strength
Require less water
Higher expansion

Which feature provide the bond onlay the most retention?

4. what happens with the intercanine distance after mixed dentition?
a. increased
b. decreased
c. no change

11. all are advantage of hybrid ionomer except
a. esthetics
b. bond strength
c. wear resistance
d. coefficient of thermal expansion-answer


12. which of the ff cause bone loss
a. C3a, C5a
b. endotoxin
c. interleukin-answe[/I]r
d. B-glucoronidase

Advantage of resin veneer over porcelain veneer
Cost -answer
Esthetics
Tooth preparation

There are more detached plaques within supraging. Plaques than subgingival
Plaques. The detached plaques within subging area are the ones that are more
Toxic to tissue than attached plaques.
Both statements true
Both statement false
Etc.

When will the bull rule be utilized with the selective grindingWorking side
Balance side
Protrusive movement
All of the above

Ideal composite for class V
Microfill/polish better
Microfil/stronger
Hybrid/poish
Hybrid/stronger

. Organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses includea. Fusobacterium
b. Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides-answer
.
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion

. A light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continous
d. indirect

Alveoloplasty with excessive flap reflection,with primary closure, what is the sequela?
Shortened vestibule
Removed too much bone
Post op infection

Upright a max 1st molar with lingual and omega loop? What happens?

 

[DDS NO 1]

more pls ans these to

101. drainage of an acute abscess. Also important is
a. antibiotic
b. analgesic
c. relieve the occlusion
through debridement of the tooth
102. recurrent lesions on ono-keratinized tissue in 20 year old female are most likely
a. herpes labialis
b. herpetic gingivostomatitis
c. aphthous
d. shingles
103. why ask patient open ended questions
a. obtain specific information
b. allows freedom of response
c. obtain yes/no answer
104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar
105. while doing the access preparation in a mandibular molar you perforate. What will you do next
a. do the endo now and repair later
b. do nothing now, repair both at a later visit
c. repair the perforation and do the endo
d. extract the tooth
106. you will use a larger condenser and lateral condensation in which alloy
a. lathe cut
b. admixed
c. spherical
d. high copper
e. low copper
107. a mandibular molar has 4 canals. How should the access opening be
a. round
b. oval
c. trapezoidal
d. triangular
108. anatomy of which tooth dictates a triangular access opening in to the root canal
a. maxillary premolar
b. maxillary molar
c. maxillary central incisor
d. mandibular lateral incisor
109. repeated asking of questions by a child indicates
a. curiosity of the child
b. interest in the procedure
c. trying to delay the procedure
d. child is abnormal
110. after sedating a child
a. ask child to play alone
b. ask mom to play with the child
c. always keep eye on the status of the child
d. let the child fall asleep
111. autism presents as a problem due to
a. metal ******ation of child
b. child playing with hair constantly
c. inability to communication
d. involuntary jerky movements of the child
112. which muscles that affect the lingual border of a mandibular CD
a. mylohyoid, genioglossus, omohyoid, middle constrictor
b. mylohyoid, genioglossus, superior constrictor
c. mylohyoid, genioglossus, superior constrictor, palatoglossus
113. which computer database stored dental literature
a. LEXUS
b. Medline
c. online of dental literature
114. pharmacokinetics and biotransformation of drugs is affected in the elderly due to
a. rapid biotransformation
b. increased half life
c. decreased renal excretion
115. after injection of local anesthesia for the posterior superior alveolar nerve block a sudden swelling seen on the ipsilateral side extending in the canine region. What is the cause
a. buccal pad of fat
b. loose areolar tissue
c. rupture of posterior superior alveolar vessel
d. leakage of saliva
116. which principle of ethics allows the patient the right to choose his treatment
a. paternalism
b. justice
c. autonomy
d. Malefecience
117. which is the most common complaint of lab technicians regarding a PFM prosthesis
a. improper buccal reduction
b. improper occlusal reduction
c. improper shade selection
d. improper margins in the impression
118. which surface of mandibular first primary molar requires least reduction for a stainless steel crown
a. occlusal
b. buccal
c. lingual
d. proximal
119. which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat
a. deficient margins
b. overextended margins
c. proximal contacts
d. buccal over contouring
120. a patient complains of dull pain and has a carious tooth with a periapical lucency surrounded by an opacity. What is it
a. abnormal
b. cementoblastoma
c. reaction to inflammation
d. normal
121. Tylenol and ASA are same in all of the following except
a. modes of action
b. onset of action
c. duration of action
d. toxicity
122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine
123. what will you see if a patient receives a dose of 4Gy on the arm all at one time
a. ulcers
b. vesicles
c. erythema
d. osteosarcoma
124. which of the following cn we see on the radiograph
a. buccal curvature of roots
b. gingival fibers
c. calcification
d. periodontal ligament
125. there is a root fracture in the apical third of the root of a mandibular tooth. What will be the most likely result
a. root resorption
b. ankylosis
c. vitality will be preserved
d. tooth will show internal resorption
126. there is a root fracture in the middle third of the root in an 11 year old patient. The tooth is mobile and vital. What will you do
a. extract
b. pulpectomy
c. splint and observe
d. do nothing
127. what is the median of 1111223379?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 7
128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion
a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets
d. food impaction
129. greatest amount of occlusal forces is seen in
a. mastication
b. swallowing
c. parafunctional habit
d. centric relation
130.spread of infection from the gingiva to the bone is via
a. traumatic occlusion
b. vasculature of the periosteum
c. periodontal ligament
d. vasculature of the gingiva
131. which of the following cause the bone loss
a. C3a, C5a
b. endotoxin
c. interleukin
d. B-glucuronidase
132. aspirin burn is what
a. atrophy
b. hyperkeratosis
c. necrosis
d. hyperplasia
133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2
134. a 6 years old patient has acute lymphatic leukemia. Her deciduous molar has a large carious lesion and furcation lucency. How will you treat this person
a. pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy
c. extraction
d. nothing
135. bleaching is best when done in which of the following situations
a. necrotic pulp
b. amalgam leached through the tubules
c. precipitation
136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
137. patient presents tenderness on palpation of the right joint, the jaw deviates to the right on opening and there is an open bite. What is the cause
a. fracture of the left side
b. bilateral fracture
c. fracture of the right side
d. symphysis fracture
138. which of the following is most radiopaque
a. quartz
b. silica
c. barium
139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia
140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true
141. a non working interference occurs in which of the following
inner incline of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth and inner incline of lingual cusp of maxillary teeth
142. a FPD was placed on teeth #18-20 with both retainers being gold crowns. After cementation the patient returns complaining of sensitivity. What is the next step to do
a. check vitality
b. refer to endodontics
c. check occlusal
d. do a cavity test.
143. which of the following is the composition of water glass ionomer
a. zinc oxide powder and poly acrylic acid
b. aluminosilicate glass and polycitric acid
c. aluminosilicate glass and polyacrylic acid
d. zinc oxide powder and polyacrylic acid.
144. antibiotics help to reduce pockets by
a. resection
b. shrinkage
c. reattachment
d. regeneration
145. scaling is the removal of surface deposits on teeth. Scaling can be done on crown and root surfaces
a. both are false
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are true
d. only the first statement is true
146.all of the following are endogenous opioids except
a. endorphin

 

[DDS NO 1]

more

101. drainage of an acute abscess. Also important is
a. antibiotic
b. analgesic
c. relieve the occlusion
through debridement of the tooth
102. recurrent lesions on ono-keratinized tissue in 20 year old female are most likely
a. herpes labialis
b. herpetic gingivostomatitis
c. aphthous
d. shingles
103. why ask patient open ended questions
a. obtain specific information
b. allows freedom of response
c. obtain yes/no answer
104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar
105. while doing the access preparation in a mandibular molar you perforate. What will you do next
a. do the endo now and repair later
b. do nothing now, repair both at a later visit
c. repair the perforation and do the endo
d. extract the tooth
106. you will use a larger condenser and lateral condensation in which alloy
a. lathe cut
b. admixed
c. spherical
d. high copper
e. low copper
107. a mandibular molar has 4 canals. How should the access opening be
a. round
b. oval
c. trapezoidal
d. triangular
108. anatomy of which tooth dictates a triangular access opening in to the root canal
a. maxillary premolar
b. maxillary molar
c. maxillary central incisor
d. mandibular lateral incisor
109. repeated asking of questions by a child indicates
a. curiosity of the child
b. interest in the procedure
c. trying to delay the procedure
d. child is abnormal
110. after sedating a child
a. ask child to play alone
b. ask mom to play with the child
c. always keep eye on the status of the child
d. let the child fall asleep
111. autism presents as a problem due to
a. metal ******ation of child
b. child playing with hair constantly
c. inability to communication
d. involuntary jerky movements of the child
112. which muscles that affect the lingual border of a mandibular CD
a. mylohyoid, genioglossus, omohyoid, middle constrictor
b. mylohyoid, genioglossus, superior constrictor
c. mylohyoid, genioglossus, superior constrictor, palatoglossus
113. which computer database stored dental literature
a. LEXUS
b. Medline
c. online of dental literature
114. pharmacokinetics and biotransformation of drugs is affected in the elderly due to
a. rapid biotransformation
b. increased half life
c. decreased renal excretion
115. after injection of local anesthesia for the posterior superior alveolar nerve block a sudden swelling seen on the ipsilateral side extending in the canine region. What is the cause
a. buccal pad of fat
b. loose areolar tissue
c. rupture of posterior superior alveolar vessel
d. leakage of saliva
116. which principle of ethics allows the patient the right to choose his treatment
a. paternalism
b. justice
c. autonomy
d. Malefecience
117. which is the most common complaint of lab technicians regarding a PFM prosthesis
a. improper buccal reduction
b. improper occlusal reduction
c. improper shade selection
d. improper margins in the impression
118. which surface of mandibular first primary molar requires least reduction for a stainless steel crown
a. occlusal
b. buccal
c. lingual
d. proximal
119. which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat
a. deficient margins
b. overextended margins
c. proximal contacts
d. buccal over contouring
120. a patient complains of dull pain and has a carious tooth with a periapical lucency surrounded by an opacity. What is it
a. abnormal
b. cementoblastoma
c. reaction to inflammation
d. normal
121. Tylenol and ASA are same in all of the following except
a. modes of action
b. onset of action
c. duration of action
d. toxicity
122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine
123. what will you see if a patient receives a dose of 4Gy on the arm all at one time
a. ulcers
b. vesicles
c. erythema
d. osteosarcoma
124. which of the following cn we see on the radiograph
a. buccal curvature of roots
b. gingival fibers
c. calcification
d. periodontal ligament
125. there is a root fracture in the apical third of the root of a mandibular tooth. What will be the most likely result
a. root resorption
b. ankylosis
c. vitality will be preserved
d. tooth will show internal resorption
126. there is a root fracture in the middle third of the root in an 11 year old patient. The tooth is mobile and vital. What will you do
a. extract
b. pulpectomy
c. splint and observe
d. do nothing
127. what is the median of 1111223379?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 7
128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion
a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets
d. food impaction
129. greatest amount of occlusal forces is seen in
a. mastication
b. swallowing
c. parafunctional habit
d. centric relation
130.spread of infection from the gingiva to the bone is via
a. traumatic occlusion
b. vasculature of the periosteum
c. periodontal ligament
d. vasculature of the gingiva
131. which of the following cause the bone loss
a. C3a, C5a
b. endotoxin
c. interleukin
d. B-glucuronidase
132. aspirin burn is what
a. atrophy
b. hyperkeratosis
c. necrosis
d. hyperplasia
133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2
134. a 6 years old patient has acute lymphatic leukemia. Her deciduous molar has a large carious lesion and furcation lucency. How will you treat this person
a. pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy
c. extraction
d. nothing
135. bleaching is best when done in which of the following situations
a. necrotic pulp
b. amalgam leached through the tubules
c. precipitation
136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
137. patient presents tenderness on palpation of the right joint, the jaw deviates to the right on opening and there is an open bite. What is the cause
a. fracture of the left side
b. bilateral fracture
c. fracture of the right side
d. symphysis fracture
138. which of the following is most radiopaque
a. quartz
b. silica
c. barium
139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia
140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true
141. a non working interference occurs in which of the following
inner incline of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth and inner incline of lingual cusp of maxillary teeth
142. a FPD was placed on teeth #18-20 with both retainers being gold crowns. After cementation the patient returns complaining of sensitivity. What is the next step to do
a. check vitality
b. refer to endodontics
c. check occlusal
d. do a cavity test.
143. which of the following is the composition of water glass ionomer
a. zinc oxide powder and poly acrylic acid
b. aluminosilicate glass and polycitric acid
c. aluminosilicate glass and polyacrylic acid
d. zinc oxide powder and polyacrylic acid.
144. antibiotics help to reduce pockets by
a. resection
b. shrinkage
c. reattachment
d. regeneration
145. scaling is the removal of surface deposits on teeth. Scaling can be done on crown and root surfaces
a. both are false
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are true
d. only the first statement is true
146.all of the following are endogenous opioids except
a. endorphin

 

[DDS NO 1]

Please correct me if I am wrong


q)which pulp horn in child is most susceptible to exposure?..mesio buccal mandibular 1 molar

the office bleaching changes the shade through all except
1)dehydration-Ans......correct
2)etching tooth
3)oxidation of colorant
4)surface deminearalization


50 what is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalographa. nasion-menton.....correct
b. ANS-menton
c. A-menton
d. A-B

124 what is the most definite way to differentiate ameloblastoma, and odontogenic keratocyst?a. smear cytology
b. reactive light microscopy-answer..........correct
c. reflective microscopy

The percentage of a specific LA which is present in the base form when injected into tissue whose pH is 7.4 is inversely proportional to the Pka of that agent. Onset is faster,duration is longer..........correct
Onset is slower,duration is longer
Duration same,onset is slower
Onset and duration same

which of the following injections have positive inspiration
1)IA 10-15%-answer............correct
2)akisino
#)infraorbital
$)gow gate 2%
mental nerve

asprin stops pain by
1)stoping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord-answer...............correct
2)syopping the signal transduction in the cortex
3)interfering with the signal trasnduction in the cns
4)stopping local signal transduction and production

What is advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
Better fl released
Better tensile strength................correct
Require less water
Higher expansion

Which feature provide the bond onlay the most retention?.....parallelism of the prepared axial wall

4. what happens with the intercanine distance after mixed dentition?
a. increased................correct
b. decreased
c. no change

11. all are advantage of hybrid ionomer except
a. esthetics
b. bond strength
c. wear resistance.................????
d. coefficient of thermal expansion-answer...........??? not sure


12. which of the ff cause bone loss
a. C3a, C5a
b. endotoxin
c. interleukin-answe[/i]r.......correct
d. B-glucoronidase

Advantage of resin veneer over porcelain veneer
Cost -answer...............correct
Esthetics
Tooth preparation

There are more detached plaques within supraging. Plaques than subgingival
Plaques. The detached plaques within subging area are the ones that are more
Toxic to tissue than attached plaques.
Both statements true
Both statement false................correct
Etc.

When will the bull rule be utilized with the selective grindingWorking side
Balance side................correct ...not sure
Protrusive movement
All of the above

Ideal composite for class V
Microfill/polish better..........correct
Microfil/stronger
Hybrid/poish
Hybrid/stronger

. Organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses includea. Fusobacterium
b. Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides-answer.........correct
.
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region...........correct
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion

. A light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continous..........correct
d. indirect

Alveoloplasty with excessive flap reflection,with primary closure, what is the sequela?
Shortened vestibule
Removed too much bone.............correct
Post op infection

Upright a max 1st molar with lingual and omega loop? What happens?

it might move it buccaly......

 

[drika11]

😱

1. If a torus removal must be performed on a patient with a full-mouth dentition, the incision is made at: a.torus midline.
a. directly over the most prominent part of the torus--------ans
b.from gingigval sulcus of adjacent teeth

2)which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
lack of communication---------ans
d. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
3) which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. intrusive luxation----------------ans
4) where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINE---------------ans
b. lexus
c. dental literature online
d. dental abstract

5)Small white lesion on the tooth the patient’s whole life. What caused it?
a. Hypercalcification during the first 6-12 months----------------ans
6)When dealing with furcation, Guided tissue regeneration best used with Osseointegrated bone graft. Prognosis of tooth with GTR is better in Mx molar than with Mnd molar.
# True or False of each statement ??????????

7)What is used to chk bone volume radiograph:
c)pan-------------------ans
8)tearing of the flap is MOST commonly
c.semilunar incision------------------ans
9) the major cause of EPULIS FISSURATUM IS?
ill fitting denture---ans
traumatic tissue
overextended denture
10) previously rct’d tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true
11) alveoloplasty with excessive flap reflection, with primary closure what is the sequelae?
a.Shortened vestibule,
b.removed too much bone,
c. post op infection
12) At atomic level X ray photos loose energy by?
1)bremstrahlung interactions-------------ans
2)Collision with other photos
3)compton and photoelectric process
4)spontaneous disintergration and mutation of photon energy
5)collision with nuclus of the absorbing atom.
13) Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region------------ans
b. to prevent hematoma
14) what continues to grow?
a. alveolar bone and roof of the orbit
b. alveolar bone and pterygomaxillary suture---ans
15)a survey at the end of the class is representative of
a.cohort
b.x sectional--------ans
16) A maxillary first molar is extruded 4 mm into the opposing space of a missing mandibular first molar.
To restore this you would
a) restore the maxillary molar with a crown before constructing fixed partial denture in the lower arch----ans
b) extract maxillary molar and restore both with fixed partial dentures
c) do occlusal grinding of maxillary molar to adjust occlusal plain
d) construct removable partial denture
17) what does Miliamperage does to intensity when doubled?
It will be double--------------ans
18) which of the following do you not need premed for
root plane
placing ortho bands
adjusting fixed appliances---------------------ans
19) There usually is no lesion apparent radiographically in acute apical periodontitis. However, histologically bone destruction has been noted.
a. Both statements are true -------------Ans
b. Both statements are false.
c. First statement is true, second is false.
d. First statement is false, second is true.
20) At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion.
1)1.5-2 years
2)2.5-3 years--------------------Ans
21) all associated with gastric limitation except
1)alcohol
2)indomethacin
3)ibuprofen
4)acetaminophen........ans
22) the office bleaching changes the shade through all except
1)dehydration
2)etching tooth
3)oxidation of colorant
4)surface deminearalization.........ans
23) asprin stops pain by
1)stoping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
2)syopping the signal transduction in the cortex
3)interfering with the signal trasnduction in the cns
4)stopping local signal transduction and production
24) when a dentist inserts new dentures in the patients mouth there is obvious occlusal disharmony what is the cause
1)initial vertical dimension
2)the casts are mounted on wrong hinge axis....ans
25) Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement?
A. Masseter.
B. Geniohyoid.
C. External (lateral) pterygoid....ans
D. Buccinator
26) how would you treat surgically skeletal open bite
osteotomy
anterior max surgery
lefort 1 ............ans
lefort 2
27) current technique for reducing pocket depth except?
a. gingivectomy.............ans
b. gingival curretage
c. s&R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
28) Implant retained complete denture.How many implants wil you place
2 max 2 man
4 max 2 man
29) which of the following not used to restore incisal edge of tooth
a. micro hybrid
b. macrofilled
c. hybrid...ans
d. microfilled

 

[naina1]

A pt has a drainning sinus apical to lateral incisor. The tooth which isrestoresd with a post and crown recieved root canal and apiocoectomy a year ago. radiology the tooth measures 19mm, treatmet of choice
1)retreat and refill wit gutta percha
2)retreat by surgery using a retrolfil amalgam.
ans is 2, why amalgam?

At atomic level X ray photos loose energy by
1)bremstrahlung interactions
2)Collision with other photos
3)compton and photoelectric process
4)spontaneous disintergration and mutation of photon energy
5)collision with nuclus of the absorbing atom.

the most common incision by oral surgeons is
1)an envelop
2)semilunar
3)y incision
4)z incision.


treaing of flap occurs most frequntly with
1)repeated incisin at the same place
2)envelop incisions
3)semilunar incisions


vitd deficieny causes secondary hyperparathryoidism abd osteoporosis. this causes loss of periodontal attachmenta nd loss of teeth
1) both statements are correct
2)1st statement is correct
3)2nd statement is correct
4)both ststements are incorrect
is it 4???

I plan to take NBDE part 2 soon, are this question was on exam you took recently? What you recommend to do well on exam. Thank you.

 

[naina1]

12) persistent and repetitions questions asked by an 8 years old patient during treatment are a
a. attempted to delay treatment
b. medication of hyperactivity
c. sign that child may be autistic
d. expression of the child’s curiosity about the dental treatment

13) what does the moyers probability chart predict when a transitional dentition analysis is performed?
a. the widths of mandibular anterior teeth
b. the space available for permanent canine and premolar
c. the width of permanent canines and premolars
d. the space needed for alignment of permanent mandibular central and lateral incisors

14)Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm

15) a radiographic exanimation reveals a radiolucent area in the region of the mandibular left third molar. The third molar is not present. The clinical differential diagnoses included all of the following EXCEPT one which one is this EXCEPTION
a. ameloblastoma
b. residual cyst
c. odontogenic keratocyst
d. dentigerous cyst
e. odontogenic myxoma

16)which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses

17) to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior

18) what are the advantages of direct bonding brackets over the conventional ortho band or brackets
a. easier b better OH c. no separation d. all of the above

19) an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

20)which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function

21)which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking

22) the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally

23) which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

24) which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation

25) according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry

26) where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINE
b. lexus
c. dental literature online

27) where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve
a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa
d. pterygotympanic fissure

28)all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia

Hi!, I am preparing for part 2, are these questions from the exam, if not did you take your exam and what you can say about it. thank you.

 

[pendejodo]

28 c //////////?

 

[drika11]

Hi!, I am preparing for part 2, are these questions from the exam, if not did you take your exam and what you can say about it. thank you.

ANSWERS ARE IN BOLD😉
12) persistent and repetitions questions asked by an 8 years old patient during treatment are a
a. attempted to delay treatment
b. medication of hyperactivity
c. sign that child may be autistic
d. expression of the child’s curiosity about the dental treatment

13) what does the moyers probability chart predict when a transitional dentition analysis is performed?
a. the widths of mandibular anterior teeth
b. the space available for permanent canine and premolar
c. the width of permanent canines and premolars
d. the space needed for alignment of permanent mandibular central and lateral incisors

14)Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm

15) a radiographic exanimation reveals a radiolucent area in the region of the mandibular left third molar. The third molar is not present. The clinical differential diagnoses included all of the following EXCEPT one which one is this EXCEPTION
a. ameloblastoma
b. residual cyst
c. odontogenic keratocyst
d. dentigerous cyst
e. odontogenic myxoma

16)which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses

17) to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior

18) what are the advantages of direct bonding brackets over the conventional ortho band or brackets
a. easier b better OH c. no separation d. all of the above

19) an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma AKA OSTEOSARCOMA
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

20)which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function

21)which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking

22) the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally

23) which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

24) which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation

25) according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry

26) where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINE
b. lexus
c. dental literature online

27) where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve
a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa OR PTERIGOPALATINE FOSSA
d. pterygotympanic fissure

28)all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia

 

[drika11]

Originally Posted by ash23wariya
A pt has a drainning sinus apical to lateral incisor. The tooth which isrestoresd with a post and crown recieved root canal and apiocoectomy a year ago. radiology the tooth measures 19mm, treatmet of choice
1)retreat and refill wit gutta percha
2)retreat by surgery using a retrolfil amalgam.
ans is 2, why amalgam?

ANSWER - B/c it provides a tight apical seal, is radiopaque, well tolerated by soft tissues[/B]

At atomic level X ray photos loose energy by
1)bremstrahlung interactions
2)Collision with other photos
3)compton and photoelectric process
4)spontaneous disintergration and mutation of photon energy
5)collision with nuclus of the absorbing atom.

ANSWER 1

the most common incision by oral surgeons is
1)an envelop
2)semilunar
3)y incision
4)z incision.

ANSWER 4


treaing of flap occurs most frequntly with
1)repeated incisin at the same place
2)envelop incisions
3)semilunar incisions

ANSWER 3


vitd deficieny causes secondary hyperparathryoidism abd osteoporosis. this causes loss of periodontal attachmenta nd loss of teeth
1) both statements are correct
2)1st statement is correct
3)2nd statement is correct
4)both ststements are incorrect

ANSWER 4

 

[perav]

17) to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure aread. directly over the most prominent part of the torus
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior

thats the answer . it is directly over the ridge in maxillary torus .

 

[perav]

vitd deficieny causes secondary hyperparathryoidism abd osteoporosis. this causes loss of periodontal attachmenta nd loss of teeth
1) both statements are correct
2)1st statement is correct
3)2nd statement is correct
4)both ststements are incorrect

answer is 1

Parathyroid hormone helps maintain blood calcium by regulating bone turnover, absorption of calcium from the gut, and release of calcium in the urine.

Many disorders may lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism by causing hypocalcemia (low levels of calcium in the blood), a phosphate imbalance, or both. These include the following:

Disorders of vitamin D
Rickets ( osteomalacia )
Vitamin D deficiency
Vitamin D malabsorption
Abnormal vitamin D metabolism , induced by drugs

so vit d malabsorption can cause secomndary hyperparathyrodism and in return osteo[orosis and incresed attachment loss of the peridontium

 

[drika11]

Hi Perav can you please ck the questions that i posted DRIKA11 it is on the page 14 please ck them and see if they are right! Thanks! have a good night!😀

vitd deficieny causes secondary hyperparathryoidism abd osteoporosis. this causes loss of periodontal attachmenta nd loss of teeth
1) both statements are correct
2)1st statement is correct
3)2nd statement is correct
4)both ststements are incorrect

answer is 1

Parathyroid hormone helps maintain blood calcium by regulating bone turnover, absorption of calcium from the gut, and release of calcium in the urine.

Many disorders may lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism by causing hypocalcemia (low levels of calcium in the blood), a phosphate imbalance, or both. These include the following:

Disorders of vitamin D
Rickets ( osteomalacia )
Vitamin D deficiency
Vitamin D malabsorption
Abnormal vitamin D metabolism , induced by drugs

so vit d malabsorption can cause secomndary hyperparathyrodism and in return osteo[orosis and incresed attachment loss of the peridontium

 

[mavros30]

1) Which of the following is not associated with periodontal diseas?
A)Down syndrome
B)Steven's Johnson syndrome
C)Cycloneutropenia

2) What is the treatment plan for 0.8 wide nasopalatine cyst ???

3) What is the treatment if large sialolith infection is found in Warthon's duct?
A) remove duct
B) remove submandibular gland

4) what to do with pt with petit mal sezizure?
A) give phenytoin
B) give diazepam
C) protect pt from self harm

5) Lithium is used for what type of treatment?
A) antipsychotic
B) schizophrenia

6) which of the following has the best survival rate
A) squamous cell carcinoma
B) adenocarcinoma
C) osteosarcoma

7) Onion peel look is characteristic of ??????

8) what is the most soluble ?
A) hydroxyapatite
B) carbonic apatite
C) fluoroapatite

9) When doing pulpectomy on mand mola, where would you most likely perforate??

10) which floride causes the most staining ???

11) what caused a small white lesion on the tooth of a pt who had it for his whole life ??
A) hypercalcification during first 6-12 months
B) hypercalcification during natal
C) hypercalcification during primary teeth

12) which of the following is least likely to cause progressive perio problem??
A) soft tissue injury
B) ill fitting margins
C) rough margins
D) within biological width

13) which type of flouride is found in toothpaste ???

14) which cyst most likely to become neoplastic
A) dentigerous
B) residual
C) radicular

15) what asthma drug causes fungal infection ??

16) why do you give hydralazine with chloral hydrate to pt ???

17) lidocaine overdose causes ???

18) what is pathognemonic for measels ???

19) in releaving mandibuar buccal frenum which muscle is released ???

 

[perav]

1) Which of the following is not associated with periodontal diseas?
A)Down syndrome
B)Steven's Johnson syndrome
C)Cycloneutropenia

2) What is the treatment plan for 0.8 wide nasopalatine cyst ??? enucleation from palaltal approach .


3) What is the treatment if large sialolith infection is found in Warthon's duct?
A) remove duct
B) remove submandibular gland

4) what to do with pt with petit mal sezizure?
A) give phenytoin
B) give diazepam
C) protect pt from self harm

5) Lithium is used for what type of treatment?
A) antipsychotic
B) schizophrenia
bipolar affective disorder

6) which of the following has the best survival rate
A) squamous cell carcinoma
B) adenocarcinoma
C) osteosarcoma

7) Onion peel look is characteristic of ?????? osteomylitis , ewing sarcome , ...

8) what is the most soluble ?
A) hydroxyapatite
B) carbonic apatite
C) fluoroapatite

9) When doing pulpectomy on mand mola, where would you most likely perforate??

10) which floride causes the most staining ??? stannous fluoride

11) what caused a small white lesion on the tooth of a pt who had it for his whole life ??
A) hypercalcification during first 6-12 monthsB) hypercalcification during natal
C) hypercalcification during primary teeth

12) which of the following is least likely to cause progressive perio problem??
A) soft tissue injuryB) ill fitting margins
C) rough margins
D) within biological width

13) which type of flouride is found in toothpaste ??? sodium monofluorophosphate

14) which cyst most likely to become neoplastic
A) dentigerousB) residual
C) radicular

15) what asthma drug causes fungal infection ?? cortocosteroid

16) why do you give hydralazine with chloral hydrate to pt ??? to decrese cardiac arrythmias as hydralazine causes vasodilation so it decreses after load . choral hydrate causes arrythmias . i am not very sure .

17) lidocaine overdose causes ??? cns depression followed by excitation

18) what is pathognemonic for measels ??? koplik spots

19) in releaving mandibuar buccal frenum which muscle is released ???

triangularis

 

[Celebrations]

7) Ewings Sarcoma

 

[Celebrations]

Paget's disease of bone commonly affects ??

1)Vertabra
2)Plevis
3)Phalanges
4)Humerus
5)Skull

a)1,2,5
b)1,3,5
c)All of Above

 

[mavros30]

1) what happens if debris get into sulcus after doing endo ?????

2) Problems when doing CPR ????

3) Prognosis with guided tissue regeneration is better in MAX molar or MAND molar ???

4) which space would cause infection in the mediastinum ???

5) how does nor-epi works
A) heat
B) contractility
C) peripheral resistance

6) when do you fill the tooth with CAOH
A) 1st week of splinting
B)after 14 days of splinting
C) resorption

7) what is aminocaproic acid used for????

 

[mavros30]

3. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a case post-and-core and a metal ceramic crown. Three months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:

A. A loose crown.
B. Psychosomatic
C. A vertical root fracture.
D. A premature eccentric contact.

i think it's D...it cant be C because there is no mobility and NO radiographic evidence (normal radiographs) of tooth fracture.

 

[sweetgal]

3. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a case post-and-core and a metal ceramic crown. Three months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:

A. A loose crown.
B. Psychosomatic
C. A vertical root fracture.
D. A premature eccentric contact.

i think it's D...it cant be C because there is no mobility and NO radiographic evidence (normal radiographs) of tooth fracture.

well i think answer is vertical root fracture,,,coz if its a premature contact pt will return in one or two days,,,and vertical fractures cannot be determined on radiographs,,,correct me if i am wrong