I'm reviewing my FL 1, and I'm confused on Question 24 of the Bio/Biochem section.
Q) A follow-up study by the researchers showed that the Y chromosome experiences a much higher mutation rate than the X chromosome. This is likely due to the fact that:
A) the X chromosome encodes more proteins responsible for genetic repair than the Y chromosome.
B) the Y chromosome is much smaller and therefore more susceptible to mutation.
C) the Y chromosome goes through many more divisions than the X chromosome in a typical population.
D) the Y chromosome has significantly fewer genes, making mutations more evident.
Now, I thought it was D because having less genes on the Y chromosome will allow the mutations to have phenotypical changes, because it will be more dramatic. However, NextStep claims most of the DNA on the Y chromosome is junk DNA "therefore, mutation of the Y chromosome is actually relatively unlikely to have a phenotypic effect." Is this true? I never heard of this.
The answer is C. The explanation by NextStep is: "The Y chromosome is inherited through sperm, which undergo many divisions during gametogenesis. Each cellular division makes mutation more likely. Additionally, sperm develop in the testes, which exist under unusually oxidative conditions; this also promotes mutation. The X chromosome undergoes fewer total replications in the population due to the limited number of replicative rounds during oogenesis. Additionally, females have crossing-over events to restore function to damaged X chromosomes." Don't males and females undergo the same process of meiosis? I know females are born with a set amount of ovums, so is that what NextStep is hinting at?
Can someone explain to me what's going on with this question?
Thanks
@NextStepTutor_1 @NextStepTutor_2 @NextStepTutor_3
Q) A follow-up study by the researchers showed that the Y chromosome experiences a much higher mutation rate than the X chromosome. This is likely due to the fact that:
A) the X chromosome encodes more proteins responsible for genetic repair than the Y chromosome.
B) the Y chromosome is much smaller and therefore more susceptible to mutation.
C) the Y chromosome goes through many more divisions than the X chromosome in a typical population.
D) the Y chromosome has significantly fewer genes, making mutations more evident.
Now, I thought it was D because having less genes on the Y chromosome will allow the mutations to have phenotypical changes, because it will be more dramatic. However, NextStep claims most of the DNA on the Y chromosome is junk DNA "therefore, mutation of the Y chromosome is actually relatively unlikely to have a phenotypic effect." Is this true? I never heard of this.
The answer is C. The explanation by NextStep is: "The Y chromosome is inherited through sperm, which undergo many divisions during gametogenesis. Each cellular division makes mutation more likely. Additionally, sperm develop in the testes, which exist under unusually oxidative conditions; this also promotes mutation. The X chromosome undergoes fewer total replications in the population due to the limited number of replicative rounds during oogenesis. Additionally, females have crossing-over events to restore function to damaged X chromosomes." Don't males and females undergo the same process of meiosis? I know females are born with a set amount of ovums, so is that what NextStep is hinting at?
Can someone explain to me what's going on with this question?
Thanks
@NextStepTutor_1 @NextStepTutor_2 @NextStepTutor_3