Is SAT not also a measure of performance on a single day? Did you just give me an example of the importance of a standardized exam? Do they not both serve the same purpose in evaluating students?
If both students with A's in your scenario got the same MCAT score, how could one be favored over the other because of his school's reputation? If the student who got the A at the school with the higher reputation "worked harder for it" (due to higher difficulty, higher reputation, better classmates, whatever), he would've scored higher than the other student from XYZ State on the same exam. Yet they both scored the same on the same exam. If UG with higher reputation truly is better or more rigorous than random UG, then considering 3.8 Harvard vs 3.8 XYZ state, the Harvard student should be expected to have a higher MCAT than the XYZ State student, because the 3.8 at Harvard was harder to get. If the 3.8 at Harvard was more difficult, a higher test score should be expected. If both students got the same score on the same test, then without extensive investigation you cannot possibly conclude that UGx was more rigorous or served a better education than UGy, regardless of reputation or prestige.
Yes, overall Yale is a better school than Montana State. It is more prestigious and has a higher reputation. But when it comes down to comparing single students from both institutions, each having exactly the same stats, the only difference is the Yale student is probably in a lot of debt, while the Montana State student probably isn't. They both received the same education with the same level of rigor, because they both walked out the door with the same level of knowledge. If the Yale student had received better/more, he/she would've scored better on the same test that the Montana State student took.
Is this not the purpose of the MCAT? How can one 36 be better than another 36 because of where the student went to school? Are we not more concerned about WHAT the student learns over WHERE the student learned it?
How can you expect a 3.8 XYZ UG to have to score 40+ on the same test that 3.8 Harvard got a 36 in order to be on the same ground? If they both got 36, then they are the same. How do you know the student from XYZ couldn't have gotten into Harvard, but simply didn't want to dig a whole of debt at 18? And in the end, if he scores the same as the Harvard student on the same test, show me why he is less capable of becoming a successful physician and why he is less competitive?