1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction
b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional
8 The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride primarily involves urinary excretion with the remaining portion found largely in the
a. teeth
b. muscle tissue
c. skeletal tissue
d. epidermal tissue
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes
20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space
24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally
25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels
27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round
29 which of the following is primarily communicated nonverbally
a. ideas
b. beliefs
c. thoughts
d. emotions
e. concepts
30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base area
d. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive
32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the childs diet and caries activity
c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the childs weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure
36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct
37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fibrosis
e. congenital heart disease
41. to enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
42. which of the following groups of muscle influences the molding of the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for an edentulous patient
a. hypoglossus, mylohyoid, medial pterygoid, digastric
b. mylohyoid, styloglossus, medial pterygoid, depressor anguli oris
c. palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal constrictor, mylohyoid, genioglossus
d. genioglossus, mylohyoid, middle pharyngeal constrictor, posterior belly of the digastric.
43. after the initial visit, a patients decision to return is MOST likely to be influence by the dentist
a. interpersonal skills
b. office design
c. office location
d. technical competence
e. educational credentials
44. which of the following can be a clinical feature of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
a. discrete, spherical vesical
b. temperature-sensitive teeth
c. solitary localized edematous gingival lesion
d. necrotic destruction of interdental gingival tissues
45. increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following
a. photon speed
b. photon wavelength
c. number of photons generated
d. voltage between anode and cathode
e. effective energy of the resultant beam
46. which of the following should be done when a patient presents with a low, attached maxillary frenum, accompanied by a 3 mm diastema in the early transitional dentition
a. perform a frenectomy when it is first observed.
b. observe until after the eruption of the permanent canines
c. render treatment before the complete eruption of the maxillary incisors
d. instruct the patient to wear an elastic around the teeth to close the diastema
47. an examination of a complete denture patient reveals that the retromolar pad contacts the maxillary tuberosity at the occlusal vertical dimension. To remedy this situation, which of the following should be performed
a. reduced the maxillary tuberosity by surgery
b. cover the tuberosity with a metal base
c. increase the occlusal vertical dimension
d. reduce the retromolar pad by surgery
e. omit coverage of the retromolar pad by the mandibular denture.
48. the ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept
a. autonomy
b. competence
c. beneficial
d. paternalism
49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting denture
d. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
