NBDE II - questions discussions

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Life9

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Hi Everybody.

I am planning to take the NBDE II exam. Wanted to discuss some questions. Hopefully thru this we can help each other out.

Lets start:

Q1. Which antibiotic combination has the widest spectrum?
- Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
- Pen V + tetracycline
- Amoxicillin + Metronidazole
- Erythromyicn + Tetracycline
 
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Pl answer

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength

Which of the following causes bone loss?
1 C3a, C5a
2 Endotoxin
3 Interleukin
4 B glucorinidase
 
Pl answer

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.*****

13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength ******

Which of the following causes bone loss?
1 C3a, C5a
2 Endotoxin
3 Interleukin ******
4 B glucorinidase

Correct it if anyone is wrong.
 
Thanks Sarna!
Yes it is correct.
Increase in water: powder ratio: less expansion,less strength= weaker product, the crystals are further apart and have weaker forces of attraction btwn them.

2 questions

1. Epinephrine Reversal when you take an alpha Blocker? can anyone explain?
AND also what happens to beta 1 , what does it do?

2. Why is epinephrine containdicated with MOA inhibitors?


Thanks!!!
 
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Thanks Sarna!
Yes it is correct.
Increase in water: powder ratio: less expansion,less strength= weaker product, the crystals are further apart and have weaker forces of attraction btwn them.

2 questions

1. Epinephrine Reversal when you take an alpha Blocker? can anyone explain?
AND also what happens to beta 1 , what does it do?

2. Why is epinephrine containdicated with MOA inhibitors?


Thanks!!!
1. when an alpha blocker is taken it will block the alpha 1 receptors on blood vessels so there is no alpha 1 blocker fro epinephrine to act.. so thts why it will vasodialte instead of constrictin it..the bwta 2 vasodilator effect will be pronounced bcoz they are not blocked.......... i hope it will help...


2. bcoz moa will increase the conc of epi nor epi in the brain.. so when epi is given the toxic levels might be there. i hope it willl help/ correct me if wrong..

when
 
Thanks so much !!!

Question:

Pretreatment with which of the following drugs will potentiate the ability of an IV injection of acetlycholine to LOWER blood pressure?
1. Methacholine
2. Epinephrine
3. Pilopcarpine
4. Physostigamine
5. Pralidoxime

Pl can anyone answrs? and why?




1. when an alpha blocker is taken it will block the alpha 1 receptors on blood vessels so there is no alpha 1 blocker fro epinephrine to act.. so thts why it will vasodialte instead of constrictin it..the bwta 2 vasodilator effect will be pronounced bcoz they are not blocked.......... i hope it will help...


2. bcoz moa will increase the conc of epi nor epi in the brain.. so when epi is given the toxic levels might be there. i hope it willl help/ correct me if wrong..

when
 
1.How long does it take bacterial plaque to form acid from sucrose?
A. 2-10 minutes.
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour.
C. l-2 hours.
D. More than 12 hours.
E. 24 hours.


2. Which oral mucosa changes are possible side effects of chemotherapy?
1. Atrophic thinning.
2. Ulceration.
3. Necrosis.
4. Spontaneous bleeding.
A. (1) (2) (3) :xf:
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

3. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove
1. plaque.
2. calculus.
3. crevicular epithelium.
4. contaminated cementum. 😕
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

4. Which of the following is/are essential when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration?
1. a larger diameter condenser.
2. an anatomical wedge.
3. decreased condensing pressure.
4. a dead soft matrix band.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

5. The most common cause of a Class I malocclusion is
A. discoordinate growth of the dental arch.
B. insufficient tooth size. 😕
C. inequity between tooth size and supporting bone. :xf:
D. maxillary incisor crowding.
E. congenitally missing teeth.

6. A Class III malocclusion is normally associated with
A. sleeping habits.
B. growth discrepancy. :xf:
C. tooth size - jaw size discrepancy.
D. trauma.

7. Migration of the first permanent molar following the premature loss of the deciduous second molar is usually
A. mesial with the mesial buccal cusp rotating lingually. :xf:
B. mesial with the mesial buccal cusp rotating buccally.
C. mesial with buccal tilt of the crown.
D. not found.

8. Embryologically, fusion of the palatal shelves should be completed by the
A. fifth week.
B. tenth week.
C. sixteenth week.
D. twentieth week.
read in the textbook n it says 12th week....😕

9. An exchange of calcium ions between saliva and enamel is
1. affected by fluoride.
2. a component of remineralization and demineralization.
3. important in maintenance of tooth structure.
4. pH dependent.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

10. Pressure and tension have little effect on growth of
A. the fronto-maxillary suture.
B. the alveolus.
C. the mandible.
D. cartilage. :xf:

11. Leukemic gingivitis may be misdiagnosed as
A. ascorbic acid deficiency gingivitis. :xf:
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. thrombocytopenic purpura.
D. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.


12. If a patient loses a maxillary first permnent molar before the age of 10 the
A. premolar drifts distally. premolar errupts @ 10-12 yrs of age
B. maxillary second molar erupts and moves forward. errupts @ 12-13 yrs of age
C. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. :xf:
D. overbite increases.

13. The anterior component of force may be observed clinically as
A. distal movement of a permanent mandibular cuspid.
B. mesial movement of a permanent maxillary first molar.
C. A. and B.
D. None of the above.

14. Oral flurazepam is superior to oral diazepam as
A. a sedative.
B. a tranquilizer.
C. a hypnotic.
D. a muscle relaxant.
E. an amnesic.
 
1.How long does it take bacterial plaque to form acid from sucrose?
A. 2-10 minutes.
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour.
C. l-2 hours.
D. More than 12 hours.
E. 24 hours.


2. Which oral mucosa changes are possible side effects of chemotherapy?
1. Atrophic thinning.
2. Ulceration.
3. Necrosis.
4. Spontaneous bleeding.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. (read it in oral complications of cancer chemotherapy

3. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove
1. plaque.
2. calculus.
3. crevicular epithelium.
4. contaminated cementum. 😕
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) [/SIZE]
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

4. Which of the following is/are essential when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration?
1. a larger diameter condenser.
2. an anatomical wedge.
3. decreased condensing pressure.
4. a dead soft matrix band.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

5. The most common cause of a Class I malocclusion is
A. discoordinate growth of the dental arch.
B. insufficient tooth size. 😕
C. inequity between tooth size and supporting bone. :xf:
D. maxillary incisor crowding.
E. congenitally missing teeth.

6. A Class III malocclusion is normally associated with
A. sleeping habits.
B. growth discrepancy. :xf:
C. tooth size - jaw size discrepancy.
D. trauma.

7. Migration of the first permanent molar following the premature loss of the deciduous second molar is usually
A. mesial with the mesial buccal cusp rotating lingually. :xf:
B. mesial with the mesial buccal cusp rotating buccally.
C. mesial with buccal tilt of the crown.
D. not found.

8. Embryologically, fusion of the palatal shelves should be completed by the
A. fifth week.
B. tenth week. (read it in the book: cleft lip and palate: diagnosis and treatment)
C. sixteenth week.
D. twentieth week.
read in the textbook n it says 12th week....😕

9. An exchange of calcium ions between saliva and enamel is
1. affected by fluoride.
2. a component of remineralization and demineralization.
3. important in maintenance of tooth structure.
4. pH dependent.
A. (1) (2) (3) (checked in Textbook of Dental and Oral Histology and Embryology)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

10. Pressure and tension have little effect on growth of
A. the fronto-maxillary suture. (growth of brain produces pressure which translates into tension = growth)
B. the alveolus.
C. the mandible.
D. cartilage. :xf:

11. Leukemic gingivitis may be misdiagnosed as
A. ascorbic acid deficiency gingivitis. :xf:
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. thrombocytopenic purpura.
D. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis. (confirmed in : Oral Diagnosis, Oral Medicine and Treatment Planning‎ - Page 613)


12. If a patient loses a maxillary first permnent molar before the age of 10 the
A. premolar drifts distally. premolar errupts @ 10-12 yrs of age
B. maxillary second molar erupts and moves forward. errupts @ 12-13 yrs of age
C. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. :xf:
D. overbite increases.

13. The anterior component of force may be observed clinically as
A. distal movement of a permanent mandibular cuspid.
B. mesial movement of a permanent maxillary first molar.
C. A. and B.
D. None of the above.

14. Oral flurazepam is superior to oral diazepam as
A. a sedative.
B. a tranquilizer.
C. a hypnotic. (confirmed in Learning Pharmacology through MCQ)
D. a muscle relaxant.
E. an amnesic.


I hope this helps, please correct me if I am wrong! 😀
 
Pl answer

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components. - ANS

13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength

Which of the following causes bone loss?
1 C3a, C5a
2 Endotoxin
3 Interleukin
4 B glucorinidase

any corrections, let me know! 😉
 
whats the minimal # implants when doing full dentures in maxilla/mandle?
what's the minimal # implants in overdenture retained dentures?
what's the minimal distance that should be between implant and maxillary snus?
what's the minimal thickness of a ridge for a given diameter of an implant?

thanks a bunch
 
T3 i meant Tyneol 3. i think that is the answer.

PLease help another
question:

In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which
muscle is penetrated by the needle?
A. Buccinator.---i think this might be the answer, please correct me if i am wrong. http://www.drchetan.com/inferior-alveolar-nerve-block.html
B. Mylohyoid.
C. Superior constrictor.
D. Masseter.
E. Medial (internal) pterygoid.


Standard mandibular nerve block - The nerve is approached from the opposite side of the mouth by angling the syringe from the premolars on the opposite side. After piercing the mucosa and the buccinator muscle between the palatoglossal & palatopharangeal folds until hitting bone (the ascending ramus), the syringe is drawn backwards slightly and brought parallel to the width of the ramus, so that the needle lies lateral to the medial pterygoid at the mandibular foramen
 
best site for implant success?

ant mand
post mand
post mx
ant mx

What is the last suture to ossify?

with class iii malocclusion growth does ANB decrease?

Which drug is most likely to cause damage to CN 8? gentamycin? etrythromycin?
 
best site for implant success?

ant mand
post mand:wtf: not sure
post mx
ant mx

What is the last suture to ossify?

pag 146 mosby said sphenooccipital,, and the first to have ossify is the intersphenoid

with class iii malocclusion growth does ANB decrease?

:nono: if malocclusion is class III ANB is increase and ANS is decrease I will not talk about that much because is more than a simple explanation but ANB line is going from porion to point B then if the jaw has protrusion or is more prominent than maxillary here the Line ANB will be longer than ANS line anyway depend of the case at I said is a lot to said here but if the case is protrusion of the jaw class III is increase

Which drug is most likely to cause damage to CN 8? gentamycin:shrug:? etrythromycin? etrythromycin side effects are GI irritation such as diabetic gastroparesis or peristalsis and do not give this antibiotic to a patient with history of arrithmias.... that information is pag 171 and 173 of clinical microb. made ridiculously simple edition 4





please corret me if I am wrong... and about the first one is only my opinion from what I had read so if you find something else please tell me because I am not sure
 
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Standard mandibular nerve block - The nerve is approached from the opposite side of the mouth by angling the syringe from the premolars on the opposite side. After piercing the mucosa and the buccinator muscle between the palatoglossal & palatopharangeal folds until hitting bone (the ascending ramus), the syringe is drawn backwards slightly and brought parallel to the width of the ramus, so that the needle lies lateral to the medial pterygoid at the mandibular foramen

that is on decks too so you are right 👍
 
Some q

Pl kindly answer:

1.Small white lesion patients whole life:
Hypercalcification during first 6-12 mon/
hypercalcification during natal/
hyper during primary tooth calcification

2.-Which tooth least surface area-?

3.-Most soluble: HA/ FA/ CA( carbonic apetite)

4.-If both primary molars are missing: what do u do?

5.-Upright a mandibular molar with lingual and omega loop what happens?-

Can someone also pl try & answer the IMPLANTS q posted by TBoz


whats the minimal # implants when doing full dentures in maxilla/mandle?
what's the minimal # implants in overdenture retained dentures?
what's the minimal distance that should be between implant and maxillary snus?
what's the minimal thickness of a ridge for a given diameter of an implant?

thanks a bunch
 
Standard mandibular nerve block - The nerve is approached from the opposite side of the mouth by angling the syringe from the premolars on the opposite side. After piercing the mucosa and the buccinator muscle between the palatoglossal & palatopharangeal folds until hitting bone (the ascending ramus), the syringe is drawn backwards slightly and brought parallel to the width of the ramus, so that the needle lies lateral to the medial pterygoid at the mandibular foramen


I had a ? on my test that had to do with if you are extracting one of the premolars (can't remember which but it was either first or second) which injection to give. answs were a. long buccal b. ia c. lingual d. infiltration e. a,b,c.
 
:poke:
Some q

Pl kindly answer:

1.Small white lesion patients whole life:
Hypercalcification during first 6-12 mon/
hypercalcification during natal/
hyper during primary tooth calcification

most likely should be hypocalcification but if I have to chooce here I will said this because calcification stage of permanent tooth start with the birth

2.-Which tooth least surface area-? mandibular central incisor

3.-Most soluble: HA/ FA/ CA( carbonic apetite)

4.-If both primary molars are missing: what do u do? if have first molar permanet erupted is lingual arc... if do not have any permanent then wait until they get erupted and if the patient can not eat because of that a protesis RPD should be considered in this case untill molars get erupted and then place lingual arc

5.-Upright a mandibular molar with lingual and omega loop what happens?-
inclination retro or lingual of anterior teeth, that mean over tiltin of anteriors, and extruction of molars with no inclination of molars
Can someone also pl try & answer the IMPLANTS q posted by TBoz
corret me if I am wrong
 
hey guys, these were the questions i asked in a previous post, any response is appreciated
whats the minimal # implants when doing full dentures in maxilla/mandle?
what's the minimal # implants in overdenture retained dentures?
what's the minimal distance that should be between implant and maxillary snus?
what's the minimal thickness of a ridge for a given diameter of an implant?
 
whats the minimal # implants when doing full dentures in maxilla/mandle?

OK if is for a fixed detachable protheses will be 5 in the jaw and 6 in the maxillary mosby 320

what's the minimal # implants in overdenture retained dentures?
it is the same Q ?

what's the minimal distance that should be between implant and maxillary snus?
1mm ( pag 387 contemporary fixed prosthodontic) and mosby 80

what's the minimal thickness of a ridge for a given diameter of an implant?
this I dont understand
thanks a bunch




corret me if I am wrong
 
hey ok so i was just reviewing the decks, i think you need a minimum of 10mm for ridge height, i also think you need 2mm between max sinus and implant, not 1 (friend just told me that). the question regarding overdentures, i meant if you were going to retain teeth as overdentures for fixed and/or removable dentures is there a minimum?
and going back to the 6/5 for fixed retained...is this the same number removable dentures?
 
hey ok so i was just reviewing the decks, i think you need a minimum of 10mm for ridge height, i also think you need 2mm between max sinus and implant, not 1 (friend just told me that). the question regarding overdentures, i meant if you were going to retain teeth as overdentures for fixed and/or removable dentures is there a minimum?
and going back to the 6/5 for fixed retained...is this the same number removable dentures?

well jejeeje you friend did read mosby?Ijust said what mosby said :shrug: 100% sure that is 1 mm as minimun I even did give the page, listen Tboz do not believe even what I said , just go to the book and it will make you understand better and the other I will look for it then if nobody answere before because is not the same number to a removable because the number of teeth is only because the distribution of forces in occlution so if you have real teeth then you should need not the same number 🙂 but be careful with the interpretation because if you have a removable denture tissue holded with teeth in the mouth is not the same as removable implant holded in a patient with no teeth
 
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corret me if I am wrong
the rigde width for post portion for given implant is 1.5 to 2 mm more than implant width and for ant is 2+2 =4 mm more than implant width..

hw?
distance of implant from buccal plate .5 and lingul plate 1 mm mosby page 80

and ant 2 mm on each side.. dont remem where i read??????? probably in these threads somewhere..


correct me if wrong///
 
hey guys, these were the questions i asked in a previous post, any response is appreciated
whats the minimal # implants when doing full dentures in maxilla/mandle?5 man and 6 max
what's the minimal # implants in overdenture retained dentures?2 man: 4 max

what's the minimal thickness of a ridge for a given diameter of an
implant?
1.5mm added to the size of the implant is minimum(.5mm buccal and 1mm lingual. 3mm added to the size of the implant is ideal(1.5mm buccal and 1.5mm lingual). ideal distance between implants is 3 mm. 1.5 between adjacent CEJ. but this is where they can trick you. in their 1.5mm is 1mm of bone and .5mm of adjacent tooth PDL space. so if they ask the question how far from adjacent lamina dura it would be 1mm.... if they ask how far from adjacent CEJ it would be 1.5mm.. this is for ideal... for minimum distance according to peterson is .5mm of bone. so when you add their .5mm of pdl space you would need a minimum of 1mm between CEJ. pay attention to minimum and ideal when the question is asked

Simple versions:
minimum for 4.1 mm implant: 6.1mm between adjacent teeth and ridge width of 5.6mm
ideal for 4.1 mm implant: 7.1 mm between adjacent teeth and ridge width of 7.1mm


what is the last suture to ossify? spheno occipital pg 146 mosby's (occurs after the age of 7)



All these answers are easily found in study material. I think every question asked here could be found in mosby's. You will learn so much more if you search for the answers yourself, instead of having someone just tell you, because i highly doubt you will be asked the exact same question. For instance if you looked up the implant questions in mosby's you would also learn that implants need to be 2mm superior the IAN canal, 5mm anterior mental foramen, 1mm inferior to maxillary sinus, 1 mm inferior to nasal cavity

🙂
 
Can someone please explain this one to me?

Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute of choice for penicillin in pen-sensitive pts?

A- Cephalexin
B- Erythromycin
C- Teracycline
D- Clindamycin

Answer is B but why not D if you go by prophylaxis guidelines?

Thanks!
 
why is advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement inmediately before mixing:
a. avoid absorbtion of moisture from air
b. avoid apreading over a large area of the slab
c. allow tempering of the powder in the slab
d. reduce temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. prevent evaporatio of the volatie component


larger condensers & laterally applied condensation forces are recommended for condensation of> which type of amalgam?
a. admixed
b. spherica
c. lathe cut
d. high cooper
e. conventional
 
Can someone please explain this one to me?

Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute of choice for penicillin in pen-sensitive pts?

A- Cephalexin
B- Erythromycin
C- Teracycline
D- Clindamycin

Answer is B but why not D if you go by prophylaxis guidelines?

Thanks!
the answer is clyndamicin
 
Can someone please explain this one to me?

Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute of choice for penicillin in pen-sensitive pts?

A- Cephalexin
B- Erythromycin
C- Teracycline
D- Clindamycin

Answer is B but why not D if you go by prophylaxis guidelines?

Thanks!

where did u see the answer? 'cause the guidelines changed not too long ago, maybe the answer is from an old test
 
digitalis can lead to:
a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponartremia
c. hypocalcemia

which of the following explains how biofeedback works;
a. reduce cognitive dissonnace
b. it stimulates the symphathetic nervous system
c. hypnotizes the patient
d. distracts & engages the patient in an active coping task
e. enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
 
digitalis can lead to:
a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponartremia
c. hypocalcemia

which of the following explains how biofeedback works;
a. reduce cognitive dissonnace
b. it stimulates the symphathetic nervous system
c. hypnotizes the patient
d. distracts & engages the patient in an active coping task
e. enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function

Digitalis Toxicity can lead to hypokalemia because from the MOA of the drug it competes for the K+ ion at the same binding site at Na/K Atpase pump.

Biofeedback answer is E 🙂
 
Ok I have been using Mosbys, Decks, Kaplan, and First Aid and I am getting conflicting answers for the following...please Help..and cite.

1) location of 4th canal in mand molars?
2) most common/easily perforated wall on mand molar access (lingual or mesial??)
3)Most common missing teeth?? Is the Mand 2nd Premolar more commonly missing than the Max laterals???

Please help:scared:
 
Ok I have been using Mosbys, Decks, Kaplan, and First Aid and I am getting conflicting answers for the following...please Help..and cite.

1) location of 4th canal in mand molars?
2) most common/easily perforated wall on mand molar access (lingual or mesial??)
3)Most common missing teeth?? Is the Mand 2nd Premolar more commonly missing than the Max laterals???

Please help:scared:
hi sunshine. i am confused in these too coz man molars are abit tilted lingual and mesial. so both can be perforated during access prep.. but more likely is lingual and asda papres say....i think mesial is during instrumentation..most common mising is man/max 3rd molars man 2nd pm and then max lateral... and most commonly impacted is man/max 3rd molras and max canine.... hope it helps..

anyone to correct it !!!!!
 
to demonstrate clinical effectiveness antimicrobial agent must demonstrate trat it
a. reduce plaque
b. reduce disease
c. kills aerobic bacteria
d. kills anaerobic bacteria

before toot prep, the dentist should visualize the outline form to:
a. establish convenience form
c. prevent over cutting & overextension
d. aid in finish of enamel walls & margins

incomplete removal of bact, pulp debris & dentinal shaving is caused by failure to irrigate troroughly, anther reason is failure to
a. use broaches
b. use a chelating agent
c. obtain straight line access
d. use gait glidden burs
 
to demonstrate clinical effectiveness antimicrobial agent must demonstrate trat it
a. reduce plaque
b. reduce disease👍
c. kills aerobic bacteria
d. kills anaerobic bacteria

before toot prep, the dentist should visualize the outline form to:
a. establish convenience form
c. prevent over cutting & overextension👍
d. aid in finish of enamel walls & margins

incomplete removal of bact, pulp debris & dentinal shaving is caused by failure to irrigate troroughly, anther reason is failure to
a. use broaches
b. use a chelating agent
c. obtain straight line access👍
d. use gait glidden burs

There you go. i think.
 
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best reason for RPD over fixed bridge?
esthetic, hygene or cooperation?

which injection post the greatest risk for hematoma?
PSA
MSA
Mandibular block😕
 
which is most seen in TMJ dysfunction patient:
depresion? psycosis?
sociopaty? schizophrenia?
passive-agressive behavior?


caracteristics of autism that presents major obstacle to dental managment:
impaired communication
lack of intelectual development
inability to perform motor abilities
automation, such as hair twirling & body rocking
 
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