-
CycleTrack and SDN are teaming up to make medical school admissions more transparent and accessible! Read the announcement to learn how we’re supporting the future of CycleTrack’s free application-tracking tools .
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
NBDE part II question
Started by funstuff
Get help with your application
Use all the free resources available to you from SDN: articles, guides, expert advising, forums discussions, and school research.
- Status
- Not open for further replies.
Coz TFO do lead to hypersensitivity but never gingivitis or attachment loss( i read somewhere)
why gingivitis is the ans , can you plz provide some hint?
I was thinking that there is no PDL and pulp thats why there should be no pain
1 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity
2 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars
d. incisors a. maxillary molars
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars
3. after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂
d. incisors
2 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@🙂
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars
Advertisement - Members don't see this ad
1 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity@@@@@@@@@@
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity@@@@@@@@@@
Interpositional autogenous bone grafting procedures were performed in the mandibles of 12 beagle dogs to assess cell survival within the graft and the superiorly repositioned alveolus, and to monitor the remodeling process. 🙂 Histologic and radiologic results indicated that the grafts were well accepted and that new bone was rapidly laid down on their trabeculae. 🙂However, the osteocytes within the autografts generally did not survive. There was no evidence of necrosis of the superiorly displaced alveolus, nor any resorption of its surface cortex, and it rapidly united with the autograft and the mandible to produce a stable structure. This study confirms that the lingual pedicle of soft tissue is adequate to maintain the viability of the superiorly repositioned alveolus or segment and to allow rapid remodeling of the autogenous bone graft.
3. after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks >>>>...@@@@@
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks >>>>...@@@@@
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
As with any surgery, physical activity should be limited immediately following the procedure. Partial or full dentures may be worn after 10 days of healing.
Edentulous patients who would like a full arch of secure replacement teeth are also good candidates for dental implant surgery. This treatment normally involves four to six dental implants, which are allowed to heal for 90 days👍. Next, a one-piece titanium frame with acrylic teeth and pink gum tissue is fabricated. This prosthesis, called a Procera® Implant Bridge, is the latest treatment👍 for patients who are missing all of their teeth. The Procera® Implant Bridge provides natural-feeling and natural-looking replacement teeth for patients missing the bottom or top row of their teeth.
thanx sekhon, wat about other
TMD patients usually have
a. psychosis
b. antisocial tendency
c. Schizotypical character
d. drug abuse a. psychosis
b. antisocial tendency
c. Schizotypical character
🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂
hey sekhon i was thinking periapical as its best radiograph to localise thing, as we c that to dermine supernuemary( which can be mesiodens) take 2/3 periapical.
am i right?
am i right?

do u have any authentic reference dear
??????????????????
@ benny dear .do u hv any idea
as per me ans is opg.i hv blue idea as i hv read smwhere but not for sure.
plz help smbdy
others too answered to my best dear .......thanx sekhon, wat about other
TMD patients usually haved. drug abuse
a. psychosis >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>.@@@@@@@@@@@@ sure
b. antisocial tendency
c. Schizotypical character
i may b still corrected by others
but in questions where they give other options in which both depression & psychosis r given , ans is always depression. that's wy i was confused that wy to chose it now??
others too answered to my best dear .......
i may b still corrected by others
but if dear its soooooo high i.e beyond the margins of periapical .i mean in iopar the view is confined till apex....we can make out early mesioden here...so need wider view,........may b opg....hey sekhon i was thinking periapical as its best radiograph to localise thing, as we c that to dermine supernuemary( which can be mesiodens) take 2/3 periapical.
am i right?![]()
im trying to get the reference but hv not yet....🙁
but in questions where they give other options in which both depression & psychosis r given , ans is always depression. that's wy i was confused that wy to chose it now??
but depression was not in the question u posted here.😎
otherwise both cause TMD
1 palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
c. labial bow is not functional in this case
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
c. labial bow is not functional in this case
2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change a. increased
b. decreased
somewhere its ans is no change & some say increse, if anybody can ans with explanation pls??
3. aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS
d. stopping local signal production and transduction a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS
Last edited:
dear i couldn't find where it says opg for mesiodens? again from diagram i feel for small things c periapical😕😕 it can be seen in routine radiograph, and in routine we take periapical
http://www.google.ca/imgres?imgurl=http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_w92aUCEqgb4/RZJ1_Qz-tCI/AAAAAAAAAEU/t0La-65J3Do/s200/mesiodensx1.jpg&imgrefurl=http://cyberdentist.blogspot.com/2007/01/mesiodens-or-extra-tooth.html&h=200&w=138&sz=15&tbnid=8u2YFBamU78u4M:&tbnh=104&tbnw=72&prev=/images%3Fq%3Dmesiodens&hl=en&usg=__4sJsFeACeX3ZrtzWjy8gixrke_8=&ei=Hcb0S-KUOsT38AaIovS4Cg&sa=X&oi=image_result&resnum=5&ct=image&ved=0CCYQ9QEwBA
http://www.google.ca/imgres?imgurl=http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_w92aUCEqgb4/RZJ1_Qz-tCI/AAAAAAAAAEU/t0La-65J3Do/s200/mesiodensx1.jpg&imgrefurl=http://cyberdentist.blogspot.com/2007/01/mesiodens-or-extra-tooth.html&h=200&w=138&sz=15&tbnid=8u2YFBamU78u4M:&tbnh=104&tbnw=72&prev=/images%3Fq%3Dmesiodens&hl=en&usg=__4sJsFeACeX3ZrtzWjy8gixrke_8=&ei=Hcb0S-KUOsT38AaIovS4Cg&sa=X&oi=image_result&resnum=5&ct=image&ved=0CCYQ9QEwBA
Last edited:
👍
http://www.slideshare.net/MedicineAndFamily/nitrous-oxide-sedation-in-pediatric-dentistry
👍👍 80 %what is the maximal concentration used for N2O sedation?d. 80%
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 50%
i think ans should be 80% as min. oxygen must be 20%, am i right?
http://www.slideshare.net/MedicineAndFamily/nitrous-oxide-sedation-in-pediatric-dentistry
Advertisement - Members don't see this ad
dear i couldn't find where it says opg for mesiodens? again from diagram i feel for small things c periapical😕😕 it can be seen in routine radiograph, and in routine we take periapical
http://www.google.ca/imgres?imgurl=...mage_result&resnum=5&ct=image&ved=0CCYQ9QEwBA
They are often discovered on a routine x-ray or perhaps if the teeth are not erupting in a normal manner.
MY QUESTION WAS BEST RADIOGRAPH .........😛😛😛
by acting on COX THUS INHIBITING PGn synthesis1 palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect @@@@@@@@JUST SEEMZ LOGIC ANS😀😀
c. labial bow is not functional in this case
2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentitionc. stable, no change
a. increased @@@@@@@@@@@
b. decreased
arch width
MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.......5/3 mm.intercanine
MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.....4/2 mm intermolar
👍👍👍👍....
somewhere its ans is no change & some say increse, if anybody can ans with explanation pls??
3. aspirin stops pain byd. stopping local signal production and transduction >..@@@@@
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS
what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased @@@@@@@@@@@
b. decreased c. stable, no change
arch width
MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.......5/3 mm.intercanine
MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.....4/2 mm intermolar
👍👍👍👍....
arch length always decrease by 1 mm in both.max/mand
arch circumference inncrease in max by 1mm
arch circumference . decrease in mand by 4 mm
cram all dis 👍
a. increased @@@@@@@@@@@
b. decreased c. stable, no change
arch width
MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.......5/3 mm.intercanine
MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.....4/2 mm intermolar
👍👍👍👍....
arch length always decrease by 1 mm in both.max/mand
arch circumference inncrease in max by 1mm
arch circumference . decrease in mand by 4 mm
cram all dis 👍
patient had hit in the jaw and now has a
hematoma in the floor of the mouth, what it is?
(ranula, hemangioma, a common sign of mandibular body
fracture, a common sign of mandibular condyle
fracture, ?)
Bridge is repeatedly breaking occlusal trauma, poor design, problem metal
What happens if penicillin and erythromycin are given together: summation, potentiation, idiosyncracy, cancellation
correct me if wrong
can u pls tell me how ans to 2nd ques is 5?
if Pk and PH of the solution are same then 50% drug will be ionized and 50% will be unionized
According to the buccal object rule, when the xray tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will:
a. move in the opposite direction that the cone is directed
b. move in the same direction that the cone is directed..... ANSWER
c. not move at all
this ans is right ans as , they have mentioned that the object on the buccal side move in the same direction cone is directed , that means if cone is directed distally its rays are directed distally but originally cone is moved toward the mesial side, and it is the opposite side .
I hope I am able to explain it , anyone else?
a. move in the opposite direction that the cone is directed
b. move in the same direction that the cone is directed..... ANSWER
c. not move at all
this ans is right ans as , they have mentioned that the object on the buccal side move in the same direction cone is directed , that means if cone is directed distally its rays are directed distally but originally cone is moved toward the mesial side, and it is the opposite side .
I hope I am able to explain it , anyone else?
2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change a. increased
b. decreased
intercanine width menas intercanine distance
and it incerases 3.7 mm between age 3 and 13 and then decreases 1.2 mm from age 13 to 45, so overall distance increases
thanx uabsfm & sekhon
D.4000ppm
1.In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% monoflourophospate the ampont of
flouride ions
A.400ppm
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm
flouride ions
A.400ppm
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm
D.4000ppm
2.Patient with sickle cell anaemia which is not true
A. Abnormal cell type(not sure)
B. Be more prone to infarct
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity
D.Resistant to malaria parasitesB. Be more prone to infarct
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity
2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increasedc. stable, no change
b. decreased
intercanine width menas intercanine distance
and it incerases 3.7 mm between age 3 and 13 and then decreases 1.2 mm from age 13 to 45, so overall distance increases
196. dentist present his treatment to patient and think this is BEST for him/her is called
a. paternalism -ans
c. autonomy
c. mal a. paternalism -ans
c. autonomy
204. patient's #8 and #9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one
a. redo PFM -ans
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to
c. porcelain bond to
209. who pay for most of dental care
a. government
b. insurance
c. cash -ansa. government
b. insurance
214. preload of implant is comparable t what force
a. torque -ans
a. torque -ans
b. compressive
215. top of the implant is what mm from adjacent CEJ
a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm -ans
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm
a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm -ans
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm
225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa -ans , not sure
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa -ans , not sure
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins
250 which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic -ans
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses
a. systemic antibiotic -ans
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses
252 Initial instrumentation for the biomechanical preparation of a vital tooth should begin at the canal orifice and should end at the
a. radiographic apex
b. cementodentinal junction -ans
c. cementoenamel junction
d. cement pulpal junction
a. radiographic apex
b. cementodentinal junction -ans
c. cementoenamel junction
d. cement pulpal junction
258 a patient repeatedly criticizes a dentist's actions. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to open a positive dialogue with the patient
a. maintain simple silence
b. state the patient's concern -ans
c. ignore the patient's complaints
d. recognize that the patient has a problem
e. correct the patient's misconception
a. maintain simple silence
b. state the patient's concern -ans
c. ignore the patient's complaints
d. recognize that the patient has a problem
e. correct the patient's misconception
263 to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus -ans
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus -ans
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior
291 what is the advantage of sagittal split osteotomy over the transoral vertical subcondylar osteotomy
a. correct a mandibular protrusion
b. it is safer and in the operation room and less painful -ans
c. correct mandibular retrognathia
d. correct mandibular prognathism and apertognathia
e. all of the above
f. a,c, and d only
a. correct a mandibular protrusion
b. it is safer and in the operation room and less painful -ans
c. correct mandibular retrognathia
d. correct mandibular prognathism and apertognathia
e. all of the above
f. a,c, and d only
309 how long after eating is the PH in the mouth significantly lower
a. 10-30 min
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-4 min
d. 3-6 hours
e. 10-15 min
a. 10-30 min
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-4 min
d. 3-6 hours
e. 10-15 min
correct me if wrong
Last edited:
47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth-ans
d. change arch diameter
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth-ans
d. change arch diameter
30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth
12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true
Q) hand rolled acrylic tray cant be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth
12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true
Distortion,
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
Advertisement - Members don't see this ad
incedence of cleft palate in general population in us is one on
2000 births
800 births
ans given is 800 , but I think for cleft palate alone incedence is 1 in 2000 births, while for cleft lip with or without cleft palate it is 1 in 700 births
stainless steel crown should normally extend below gingival crest apppx
1 )1 mm
2)1.5 mm
3)2 mm
4)none of the above
ans given is 1 mm, but I think it should be 4, because it is placed supragingivally, am I correct?
plz correct me if wrong
2000 births
800 births
ans given is 800 , but I think for cleft palate alone incedence is 1 in 2000 births, while for cleft lip with or without cleft palate it is 1 in 700 births
stainless steel crown should normally extend below gingival crest apppx
1 )1 mm
2)1.5 mm
3)2 mm
4)none of the above
ans given is 1 mm, but I think it should be 4, because it is placed supragingivally, am I correct?
plz correct me if wrong
Last edited:
153. what best describes porcelain
a. low compressive strength
b. high tensile strength
c. biocompatible 👍
d. high impact strength
[/QUOT
47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?
36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite👍
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth-ans
d. change arch diameter[/QUOT
30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth 👍
12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical overlap 👍
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?
Q) hand rolled acrylic tray cant be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
7;9704431]thanx uabsfm & sekhon👍👍
D.4000ppm.........wrong answer dear🙁
For the purpose of enhancing the safe use of fluoride dentifrices by children, several measures should be taken to minimise the risk of developing dental fluorosis. Parents should be advised to supervise tooth cleaning closely using only small (pea-size) quantities of toothpaste.
Manufacturers should be encouraged to market a low fluoride dentifrice (e.g. 400-500 ppm fluoride) for infant use. This level of fluoride in toothpaste, given that all other sources are constant and low, should result in a total fluoride intake which does not exceed the recommended upper limit of 0.07 mg/kg of body weight for a child between 2 and 7 years of age.10 A low fluoride, sorbitol-based toothpaste designed specifically for children is available (Colgate Junior Toothpaste) and contains 0.304% MFP (400 ppm fluoride). Data from several independent studies indicate that, although a dose-response relationship does exist for fluoride levels in toothpaste and caries, use of a 400 ppm fluoride-containing paste by children under 7 years of age instead of the standard 1000 ppm fluoride paste should not increase their caries risk. There is currently no glycerol-based, 400-500 ppm fluoride toothpaste available in Australia.
so c) is answer of exclusion as others r true
The skeletal manifestations of sickle cell disease are the result of changes in bone and bone marrow caused by the chronic tissue hypoxia that is exacerbated by episodic occlusion of the microcirculation by the abnormal sickle cells. The main processes that lead to bone and joint destruction in sickle cell disease are infarction of bone and bone marrow, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, secondary osteomyelitis, and secondary growth defects.
When the rigid erythrocytes jam in the arterial and venous sinusoids of skeletal tissue, the resultant effect is intravascular thrombosis, which leads to infarction of bone and bone marrow. Repeated episodes of these crises eventually lead to irreversible bone infarcts and osteonecrosis, especially in weight-bearing areas. These areas of osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis) become radiographically visible as sclerosis of bone with secondary reparative reaction and eventually result in degenerative bone and joint destruction.
nfarction of bone and bone marrow in patients with sickle cell disease can lead to the following changes: osteolysis (in acute infarction), osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis), articular disintegration, myelosclerosis, periosteal reaction (unusual in the adult), H vertebrae (steplike endplate depression also known as the Reynold sign or codfish vertebrae),dystrophic medullary calcification.and bone-within-bone appearance


The shortened survival time of the erythrocytes in sickle cell (10-20 days) leads to a compensatory marrow hyperplasia throughout the skeleton. The bone marrow hyperplasia has the resultant effect of weakening the skeletal tissue by widening the medullary cavities, replacing trabecular bone and thinning cortices.Deossification due to marrow hyperplasia can bring about the following changes in bone: decreased density of skull, decreased thickness of outer table of skull due to widening of diploe, hair on-end striations of the calvari and osteoporosis sometimes leading to biconcave vertebrae, coarsening of trabeculae in long and flat bones, and pathologic fractures.
1.In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% monoflourophospate the ampont of
flouride ions
A.400ppm>>>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm
flouride ions
A.400ppm>>>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm
D.4000ppm.........wrong answer dear🙁
For the purpose of enhancing the safe use of fluoride dentifrices by children, several measures should be taken to minimise the risk of developing dental fluorosis. Parents should be advised to supervise tooth cleaning closely using only small (pea-size) quantities of toothpaste.
Manufacturers should be encouraged to market a low fluoride dentifrice (e.g. 400-500 ppm fluoride) for infant use. This level of fluoride in toothpaste, given that all other sources are constant and low, should result in a total fluoride intake which does not exceed the recommended upper limit of 0.07 mg/kg of body weight for a child between 2 and 7 years of age.10 A low fluoride, sorbitol-based toothpaste designed specifically for children is available (Colgate Junior Toothpaste) and contains 0.304% MFP (400 ppm fluoride). Data from several independent studies indicate that, although a dose-response relationship does exist for fluoride levels in toothpaste and caries, use of a 400 ppm fluoride-containing paste by children under 7 years of age instead of the standard 1000 ppm fluoride paste should not increase their caries risk. There is currently no glycerol-based, 400-500 ppm fluoride toothpaste available in Australia.
2.Patient with sickle cell anaemia which is not true
A. Abnormal cell type...........true🙂
B. Be more prone to infarct...............true🙂
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity
D.Resistant to malaria parasites.................true🙂B. Be more prone to infarct...............true🙂
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity
so c) is answer of exclusion as others r true

The skeletal manifestations of sickle cell disease are the result of changes in bone and bone marrow caused by the chronic tissue hypoxia that is exacerbated by episodic occlusion of the microcirculation by the abnormal sickle cells. The main processes that lead to bone and joint destruction in sickle cell disease are infarction of bone and bone marrow, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, secondary osteomyelitis, and secondary growth defects.
When the rigid erythrocytes jam in the arterial and venous sinusoids of skeletal tissue, the resultant effect is intravascular thrombosis, which leads to infarction of bone and bone marrow. Repeated episodes of these crises eventually lead to irreversible bone infarcts and osteonecrosis, especially in weight-bearing areas. These areas of osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis) become radiographically visible as sclerosis of bone with secondary reparative reaction and eventually result in degenerative bone and joint destruction.
nfarction of bone and bone marrow in patients with sickle cell disease can lead to the following changes: osteolysis (in acute infarction), osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis), articular disintegration, myelosclerosis, periosteal reaction (unusual in the adult), H vertebrae (steplike endplate depression also known as the Reynold sign or codfish vertebrae),dystrophic medullary calcification.and bone-within-bone appearance



The shortened survival time of the erythrocytes in sickle cell (10-20 days) leads to a compensatory marrow hyperplasia throughout the skeleton. The bone marrow hyperplasia has the resultant effect of weakening the skeletal tissue by widening the medullary cavities, replacing trabecular bone and thinning cortices.Deossification due to marrow hyperplasia can bring about the following changes in bone: decreased density of skull, decreased thickness of outer table of skull due to widening of diploe, hair on-end striations of the calvari and osteoporosis sometimes leading to biconcave vertebrae, coarsening of trabeculae in long and flat bones, and pathologic fractures.
1. The histological base of a periodontal pocket may be defined as the
a. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium
e. apical to the junctional epitheliuma. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium
1. The histological base of a periodontal pocket may be defined as thee. apical to the junctional epithelium
a. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@
hand rolled acrylic tray cant be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@@@
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
All trays, however, exhibited shrinkage during the 24-hour test period. Therefore, autopolymerizing acrylic resin tray materials should not be used for an impression the same day that they are made unless the tray is boiled as suggested by Pagniano et al.5 This agrees with research already completed even though the magnitude of shrinkage was considerably less than that reported in previous studies.'
previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
A surgical stent (a guide for recontouring tissues after extraction) is often necessary and more follow-up visits are needed for adjustments and re-fitting.
If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus>>>>>>>>....@@@@@@@@@@@@@
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth

Ans given for 2nd ques was 1st choice, i think that there is change in shape of rbc & here he asks abnormal cell type and also as u wrote that there occur widening of marrow spaces, so 3rd choice is still😴7;9704431]thanx uabsfm & sekhon👍
1.In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% monoflourophospate the ampont of
flouride ions
A.400ppm>>>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm
D.4000ppm.........wrong answer dear🙁
For the purpose of enhancing the safe use of fluoride dentifrices by children, several measures should be taken to minimise the risk of developing dental fluorosis. Parents should be advised to supervise tooth cleaning closely using only small (pea-size) quantities of toothpaste.
Manufacturers should be encouraged to market a low fluoride dentifrice (e.g. 400-500 ppm fluoride) for infant use. This level of fluoride in toothpaste, given that all other sources are constant and low, should result in a total fluoride intake which does not exceed the recommended upper limit of 0.07 mg/kg of body weight for a child between 2 and 7 years of age.10 A low fluoride, sorbitol-based toothpaste designed specifically for children is available (Colgate Junior Toothpaste) and contains 0.304% MFP (400 ppm fluoride). Data from several independent studies indicate that, although a dose-response relationship does exist for fluoride levels in toothpaste and caries, use of a 400 ppm fluoride-containing paste by children under 7 years of age instead of the standard 1000 ppm fluoride paste should not increase their caries risk. There is currently no glycerol-based, 400-500 ppm fluoride toothpaste available in Australia.
2.Patient with sickle cell anaemia which is not true
A. Abnormal cell type...........true🙂
B. Be more prone to infarct...............true🙂
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity
D.Resistant to malaria parasites.................true🙂
so c) is answer of exclusion as others r true
The skeletal manifestations of sickle cell disease are the result of changes in bone and bone marrow caused by the chronic tissue hypoxia that is exacerbated by episodic occlusion of the microcirculation by the abnormal sickle cells. The main processes that lead to bone and joint destruction in sickle cell disease are infarction of bone and bone marrow, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, secondary osteomyelitis, and secondary growth defects.
When the rigid erythrocytes jam in the arterial and venous sinusoids of skeletal tissue, the resultant effect is intravascular thrombosis, which leads to infarction of bone and bone marrow. Repeated episodes of these crises eventually lead to irreversible bone infarcts and osteonecrosis, especially in weight-bearing areas. These areas of osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis) become radiographically visible as sclerosis of bone with secondary reparative reaction and eventually result in degenerative bone and joint destruction.
nfarction of bone and bone marrow in patients with sickle cell disease can lead to the following changes: osteolysis (in acute infarction), osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis), articular disintegration, myelosclerosis, periosteal reaction (unusual in the adult), H vertebrae (steplike endplate depression also known as the Reynold sign or codfish vertebrae),dystrophic medullary calcification.and bone-within-bone appearance
The shortened survival time of the erythrocytes in sickle cell (10-20 days) leads to a compensatory marrow hyperplasia throughout the skeleton. The bone marrow hyperplasia has the resultant effect of weakening the skeletal tissue by widening the medullary cavities, replacing trabecular bone and thinning cortices.Deossification due to marrow hyperplasia can bring about the following changes in bone: decreased density of skull, decreased thickness of outer table of skull due to widening of diploe, hair on-end striations of the calvari and osteoporosis sometimes leading to biconcave vertebrae, coarsening of trabeculae in long and flat bones, and pathologic fractures.
hey sekhon, can u pls tell how pocket is coronal, sholdn't it be apical to JE?
hand rolled acrylic tray cant be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@@@
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
All trays, however, exhibited shrinkage during the 24-hour test period. Therefore, autopolymerizing acrylic resin tray materials should not be used for an impression the same day that they are made unless the tray is boiled as suggested by Pagniano et al.5 This agrees with research already completed even though the magnitude of shrinkage was considerably less than that reported in previous studies.'
previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
A surgical stent (a guide for recontouring tissues after extraction) is often necessary and more follow-up visits are needed for adjustments and re-fitting.
If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus>>>>>>>>....@@@@@@@@@@@@@
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth
True pocket is formed due to apical migration of junctional epithelium
that means the pocket is sulcus depth +attachment loss[cej +coronal of je DISTANCE]
sooooooooooooo
its always from marginal gingiva to coronal portion of je.....
🙂
CUD B ANS A FOR SICKLE CELL QUESTION AS WE CAN ASSUME THAT HEMOGLOBIN IS ABNORMAL NOT CELL......CELLS SHOW SICKLING ON HYPOXIC CONDITIONS ONLY👍👍👍......GUD TEAM WORK BENNY😀
that means the pocket is sulcus depth +attachment loss[cej +coronal of je DISTANCE]
sooooooooooooo
its always from marginal gingiva to coronal portion of je.....
🙂
CUD B ANS A FOR SICKLE CELL QUESTION AS WE CAN ASSUME THAT HEMOGLOBIN IS ABNORMAL NOT CELL......CELLS SHOW SICKLING ON HYPOXIC CONDITIONS ONLY👍👍👍......GUD TEAM WORK BENNY😀
Last edited:
Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?
200000000% SURE
ANSWER IS .....A better fluoride released






a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?
200000000% SURE
ANSWER IS .....A better fluoride released







What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite>>>>>>>>>>>>>>????😕😕
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diamete
COMPANSATERY CURVES ARE USED FOR GOOD TEETH SETTING
...............
that most leveling was accomplished by the extrusion of the premolars. The continuous archwire technique is effective in leveling the COS in patients with Class II Division 1 deep-bite malocclusions treated without extractions when the initial COS is 2 to 4 mm. The leveling of the COS with the continuous archwire technique takes place by a combination of premolar extrusion and, to a lesser extent, incisor intrusion.

a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite>>>>>>>>>>>>>>????😕😕
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diamete
COMPANSATERY CURVES ARE USED FOR GOOD TEETH SETTING
...............
that most leveling was accomplished by the extrusion of the premolars. The continuous archwire technique is effective in leveling the COS in patients with Class II Division 1 deep-bite malocclusions treated without extractions when the initial COS is 2 to 4 mm. The leveling of the COS with the continuous archwire technique takes place by a combination of premolar extrusion and, to a lesser extent, incisor intrusion.


incedence of cleft palate in general population in us is one on
2000 births
800 births>>Incidence (annual) of Cleft palate: about 1 in 700 births700 births
Incidence RateIncidence Rate of Cleft palate: approx 1 in 47,600 or 0.00% or 5,714 people in USA>>>>>>>>@@@
ans given is 800 , but I think for cleft palate alone incedence is 1 in 2000 births, while for cleft lip with or without cleft palate it is 1 in 700 births
stainless steel crown should normally extend below gingival crest apppx
1 )1 mm>>>>...@@@@@@@@@@@ 20000000% SURE😉 GIVEN IN MY STANDARD PEDO TEXTBOOK
2)1.5 mm
3)2 mm
4)none of the above
1. The histological base of a periodontal pocket may be defined as the
a. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium
e. apical to the junctional epithelium
correct me if wrong
Advertisement - Members don't see this ad
Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?
200000000% SURE
ANSWER IS .....A better fluoride released![]()
thanx sekhon and benny for ans
Last edited:
plz ans to my these bunch of questions
196. dentist present his treatment to patient and think this is BEST for him/her is calledc. mal
a. paternalism -ans
c. autonomy
204. patients #8 and #9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one a. redo PFM -ans
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to
209. who pay for most of dental carec. cash -ans
a. government
b. insurance
214. preload of implant is comparable t what force
a. torque -ans
b. compressive
215. top of the implant is what mm from adjacent CEJ
a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm -ans
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm
225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa -ans , not sure
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins
250 which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic -ans
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses
252 Initial instrumentation for the biomechanical preparation of a vital tooth should begin at the canal orifice and should end at the
a. radiographic apex
b. cementodentinal junction -ans
c. cementoenamel junction
d. cement pulpal junction
258 a patient repeatedly criticizes a dentists actions. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to open a positive dialogue with the patient
a. maintain simple silence
b. state the patients concern -ans
c. ignore the patients complaints
d. recognize that the patient has a problem
e. correct the patients misconception
263 to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus -ans
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior
291 what is the advantage of sagittal split osteotomy over the transoral vertical subcondylar osteotomy
a. correct a mandibular protrusion
b. it is safer and in the operation room and less painful -ans
c. correct mandibular retrognathia
d. correct mandibular prognathism and apertognathia
e. all of the above
f. a,c, and d only
309 how long after eating is the PH in the mouth significantly lower
a. 10-30 min
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-4 min
d. 3-6 hours
e. 10-15 min
correct me if wrong
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment
means root canal treated tooth
means root canal treated tooth
hand rolled acrylic tray cant be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@@@
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
All trays, however, exhibited shrinkage during the 24-hour test period. Therefore, autopolymerizing acrylic resin tray materials should not be used for an impression the same day that they are made unless the tray is boiled as suggested by Pagniano et al.5 This agrees with research already completed even though the magnitude of shrinkage was considerably less than that reported in previous studies.'
previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment
means root canal treated tooth
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
A surgical stent (a guide for recontouring tissues after extraction) is often necessary and more follow-up visits are needed for adjustments and re-fitting.
If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus>>>>>>>>....@@@@@@@@@@@@@
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth
please ans to these questions
depth of the sulcus is 5mm while the distance b/w CEJ and base of sulcus is 2 mm , what is the attachment loss?
here , ans should be 0, as gingival sulcus depth is grater than pocket depht and so psuedopocket, did my understanding is correct?
evaluation of scaling and root planning done after how many days?
7-10
14-21
dentist cements the porcelin veneer with the light cured resin and the pt returns with brownish descoloration at the margins why?
which of the following is not an advantage of Ni Ti over stainless steel file
maintains shape
flexibility
resistance to fracture
direction of wound healing after extraction in mand arch
outward and upward
inward and downward
which of the following is not recommended for pt who is on nicotinic deaddiction
mucous patches
nicotine gum
buproprione
nicotine nasal spray
plz clear my doubt[/QUOTE]
[/quplease ans to these questions
depth of the sulcus is 5mm while the distance b/w cej and base of sulcus is 2 mm , what is the attachment loss?
here , ans should be 0, as gingival sulcus depth is grater than pocket depht and so psuedopocket, did my understanding is correct?
evaluation of scaling and root planning done after how many days?
7-10👍
14-21
dentist cements the porcelin veneer with the light cured resin and the pt returns with brownish descoloration at the margins why?
which of the following is not an advantage of ni ti over stainless steel file
maintains shape
flexibility
resistance to fracture
👍
direction of wound healing after extraction in mand arch
outward and upward
inward and downward👍 Not sure
which of the following is not recommended for pt who is on nicotinic deaddiction
mucous patches
nicotine gum
buproprione
nicotine nasal spray👍
Plz clear my doubt
- Status
- Not open for further replies.
