NBDE part II question

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can someone try to help answer questions:

Daily cleaning of root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
bcause root resorption
c. stimbulates epi attachment
d. allow remineralization of root surface

i think it is d
 
1 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity

2 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars
d. incisors

3. after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants​
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites
 
1 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity@@@@@@@@@@

Interpositional autogenous bone grafting procedures were performed in the mandibles of 12 beagle dogs to assess cell survival within the graft and the superiorly repositioned alveolus, and to monitor the remodeling process. 🙂 Histologic and radiologic results indicated that the grafts were well accepted and that new bone was rapidly laid down on their trabeculae. 🙂However, the osteocytes within the autografts generally did not survive. There was no evidence of necrosis of the superiorly displaced alveolus, nor any resorption of its surface cortex, and it rapidly united with the autograft and the mandible to produce a stable structure. This study confirms that the lingual pedicle of soft tissue is adequate to maintain the viability of the superiorly repositioned alveolus or segment and to allow rapid remodeling of the autogenous bone graft.

3. after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks >>>>...@@@@@
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants​
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites


As with any surgery, physical activity should be limited immediately following the procedure. Partial or full dentures may be worn after 10 days of healing.

Edentulous patients who would like a full arch of secure replacement teeth are also good candidates for dental implant surgery. This treatment normally involves four to six dental implants, which are allowed to heal for 90 days👍. Next, a one-piece titanium frame with acrylic teeth and pink gum tissue is fabricated. This prosthesis, called a Procera® Implant Bridge, is the latest treatment👍 for patients who are missing all of their teeth. The Procera® Implant Bridge provides natural-feeling and natural-looking replacement teeth for patients missing the bottom or top row of their teeth.
 
hey sekhon i was thinking periapical as its best radiograph to localise thing, as we c that to dermine supernuemary( which can be mesiodens) take 2/3 periapical.
am i right?:scared:



do u have any authentic reference dear

??????????????????

@ benny dear .do u hv any idea

as per me ans is opg.i hv blue idea as i hv read smwhere but not for sure.
plz help smbdy
 
thanx sekhon, wat about other

TMD patients usually have
a. psychosis >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>.@@@@@@@@@@@@ sure
b. antisocial tendency
c. Schizotypical character​
d. drug abuse
others too answered to my best dear .......
i may b still corrected by others
 
but in questions where they give other options in which both depression & psychosis r given , ans is always depression. that's wy i was confused that wy to chose it now??


others too answered to my best dear .......
i may b still corrected by others
 
hey sekhon i was thinking periapical as its best radiograph to localise thing, as we c that to dermine supernuemary( which can be mesiodens) take 2/3 periapical.
am i right?:scared:
but if dear its soooooo high i.e beyond the margins of periapical .i mean in iopar the view is confined till apex....we can make out early mesioden here...so need wider view,........may b opg....

im trying to get the reference but hv not yet....🙁
 
but in questions where they give other options in which both depression & psychosis r given , ans is always depression. that's wy i was confused that wy to chose it now??

but depression was not in the question u posted here.😎
otherwise both cause TMD
 
1 palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
c. labial bow is not functional in this case

2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change
somewhere its ans is no change & some say increse, if anybody can ans with explanation pls??

3. aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS​
d. stopping local signal production and transduction
 
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what is the maximal concentration used for N2O sedation?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 50%​
d. 80%
i think ans should be 80% as min. oxygen must be 20%, am i right?
 
1 palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect @@@@@@@@JUST SEEMZ LOGIC ANS😀😀
c. labial bow is not functional in this case

2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased @@@@@@@@@@@
b. decreased
c. stable, no change


arch width

MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.......5/3 mm.intercanine

MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.....4/2 mm intermolar
👍👍👍👍....
somewhere its ans is no change & some say increse, if anybody can ans with explanation pls??

3. aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS​
d. stopping local signal production and transduction >..@@@@@
by acting on COX THUS INHIBITING PGn synthesis
 
what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased @@@@@@@@@@@
b. decreased c. stable, no change


arch width

MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.......5/3 mm.intercanine

MAX/MAND INCREASE IS.....4/2 mm intermolar
👍👍👍👍....
arch length always decrease by 1 mm in both.max/mand
arch circumference inncrease in max by 1mm
arch circumference . decrease in mand by 4 mm
cram all dis 👍
 
😱😱😱what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased @@@@@@@if distance means length
c. stable, no change
:idea::idea::idea:
 
first step in developing film?????????
.stirr the solution
check the level of developer
developing film
fixing film
 
patient had hit in the jaw and now has a
hematoma in the floor of the mouth, what it is?
(ranula, hemangioma, a common sign of mandibular body
fracture, a common sign of mandibular condyle
fracture, ?)
Bridge is repeatedly breaking – occlusal trauma, poor design, problem metal

What happens if penicillin and erythromycin are given together: summation, potentiation, idiosyncracy, cancellation


correct me if wrong
 
According to the buccal object rule, when the xray tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will:
a. move in the opposite direction that the cone is directed
b. move in the same direction that the cone is directed..... ANSWER
c. not move at all


this ans is right ans as , they have mentioned that the object on the buccal side move in the same direction cone is directed , that means if cone is directed distally its rays are directed distally but originally cone is moved toward the mesial side, and it is the opposite side .
I hope I am able to explain it , anyone else?
 
2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change

intercanine width menas intercanine distance
and it incerases 3.7 mm between age 3 and 13 and then decreases 1.2 mm from age 13 to 45, so overall distance increases
 
thanx uabsfm & sekhon
1.In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% monoflourophospate the ampont of
flouride ions
A.400ppm
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm

D.4000ppm

2.Patient with sickle cell anaemia which is not true​
A. Abnormal cell type(not sure)
B. Be more prone to infarct
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity​
D.Resistant to malaria parasites





2 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition



a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change

intercanine width menas intercanine distance
and it incerases 3.7 mm between age 3 and 13 and then decreases 1.2 mm from age 13 to 45, so overall distance increases
 
153. what best describes porcelain
a. low compressive strength
b. high tensile strength
c. biocompatible
d. high impact strength​

 
196. dentist present his treatment to patient and think this is BEST for him/her is called
a. paternalism -ans
c. autonomy
c. mal

204. patient's #8 and #9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one

a. redo PFM -ans
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to


209. who pay for most of dental care
a. government
b. insurance
c. cash -ans

214. preload of implant is comparable t what force
a. torque -ans

b. compressive

215. top of the implant is what mm from adjacent CEJ
a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm -ans
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm

225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa -ans , not sure
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins


250 which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic -ans
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses


252 Initial instrumentation for the biomechanical preparation of a vital tooth should begin at the canal orifice and should end at the
a. radiographic apex
b. cementodentinal junction -ans
c. cementoenamel junction
d. cement pulpal junction

258 a patient repeatedly criticizes a dentist's actions. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to open a positive dialogue with the patient
a. maintain simple silence
b. state the patient's concern -ans
c. ignore the patient's complaints
d. recognize that the patient has a problem
e. correct the patient's misconception

263 to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus -ans
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior
291 what is the advantage of sagittal split osteotomy over the transoral vertical subcondylar osteotomy
a. correct a mandibular protrusion
b. it is safer and in the operation room and less painful -ans
c. correct mandibular retrognathia
d. correct mandibular prognathism and apertognathia
e. all of the above
f. a,c, and d only​

309 how long after eating is the PH in the mouth significantly lower
a. 10-30 min
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-4 min
d. 3-6 hours
e. 10-15 min​


correct me if wrong
 
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206. which is the acronym for a patient management system
a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum​
I dont understand the option
anyone?
 
47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans


36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth-ans
d. change arch diameter
 
30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth


12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical
overlap
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually


4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine
occlusion


previously rct’d tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true


Q) hand rolled acrylic tray can’t be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,
needs to dry,
adhesive won’t stick







 
incedence of cleft palate in general population in us is one on
2000 births
800 births

ans given is 800 , but I think for cleft palate alone incedence is 1 in 2000 births, while for cleft lip with or without cleft palate it is 1 in 700 births

stainless steel crown should normally extend below gingival crest apppx

1 )1 mm
2)1.5 mm
3)2 mm
4)none of the above

ans given is 1 mm, but I think it should be 4, because it is placed supragingivally, am I correct?
plz correct me if wrong
 
Last edited:
47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?

36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite👍
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth-ans
d. change arch diameter
[/QUOT
 
30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth 👍

12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical overlap 👍
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually


4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion


previously rct’d tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?
Q) hand rolled acrylic tray can’t be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,
needs to dry,
adhesive won’t stick




 
7;9704431]thanx uabsfm & sekhon👍👍
1.In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% monoflourophospate the ampont of
flouride ions
A.400ppm>>>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm

D.4000ppm.........wrong answer dear🙁


For the purpose of enhancing the safe use of fluoride dentifrices by children, several measures should be taken to minimise the risk of developing dental fluorosis. Parents should be advised to supervise tooth cleaning closely using only small (pea-size) quantities of toothpaste.
Manufacturers should be encouraged to market a low fluoride dentifrice (e.g. 400-500 ppm fluoride) for infant use. This level of fluoride in toothpaste, given that all other sources are constant and low, should result in a total fluoride intake which does not exceed the recommended upper limit of 0.07 mg/kg of body weight for a child between 2 and 7 years of age.10 A low fluoride, sorbitol-based toothpaste designed specifically for children is available (Colgate Junior Toothpaste) and contains 0.304% MFP (400 ppm fluoride). Data from several independent studies indicate that, although a dose-response relationship does exist for fluoride levels in toothpaste and caries, use of a 400 ppm fluoride-containing paste by children under 7 years of age instead of the standard 1000 ppm fluoride paste should not increase their caries risk. There is currently no glycerol-based, 400-500 ppm fluoride toothpaste available in Australia.



2.Patient with sickle cell anaemia which is not true​
A. Abnormal cell type...........true🙂
B. Be more prone to infarct...............true🙂
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity​
D.Resistant to malaria parasites.................true🙂

so c) is answer of exclusion as others r true:luck:
The skeletal manifestations of sickle cell disease are the result of changes in bone and bone marrow caused by the chronic tissue hypoxia that is exacerbated by episodic occlusion of the microcirculation by the abnormal sickle cells. The main processes that lead to bone and joint destruction in sickle cell disease are infarction of bone and bone marrow, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, secondary osteomyelitis, and secondary growth defects.
When the rigid erythrocytes jam in the arterial and venous sinusoids of skeletal tissue, the resultant effect is intravascular thrombosis, which leads to infarction of bone and bone marrow. Repeated episodes of these crises eventually lead to irreversible bone infarcts and osteonecrosis, especially in weight-bearing areas. These areas of osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis) become radiographically visible as sclerosis of bone with secondary reparative reaction and eventually result in degenerative bone and joint destruction.
nfarction of bone and bone marrow in patients with sickle cell disease can lead to the following changes: osteolysis (in acute infarction), osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis), articular disintegration, myelosclerosis, periosteal reaction (unusual in the adult), H vertebrae (steplike endplate depression also known as the Reynold sign or codfish vertebrae),dystrophic medullary calcification.and bone-within-bone appearance:luck::luck::luck:
The shortened survival time of the erythrocytes in sickle cell (10-20 days) leads to a compensatory marrow hyperplasia throughout the skeleton. The bone marrow hyperplasia has the resultant effect of weakening the skeletal tissue by widening the medullary cavities, replacing trabecular bone and thinning cortices.Deossification due to marrow hyperplasia can bring about the following changes in bone: decreased density of skull, decreased thickness of outer table of skull due to widening of diploe, hair on-end striations of the calvari and osteoporosis sometimes leading to biconcave vertebrae, coarsening of trabeculae in long and flat bones, and pathologic fractures.
 
1. The histological base of a periodontal pocket may be defined as the
a. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium
e. apical to the junctional epithelium
 
how long after eating is the PH in the mouth significantly lower
a. 10-30 min
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-4 min
d. 3-6 hours
e. 10-15 min>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@@@@
as in stephens curve
 
1. The histological base of a periodontal pocket may be defined as the
a. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@
e. apical to the junctional epithelium


hand rolled acrylic tray can’t be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@@@
needs to dry,
adhesive won’t stick


All trays, however, exhibited shrinkage during the 24-hour test period. Therefore, autopolymerizing acrylic resin tray materials should not be used for an impression the same day that they are made unless the tray is boiled as suggested by Pagniano et al.5 This agrees with research already completed even though the magnitude of shrinkage was considerably less than that reported in previous studies.'


previously rct’d tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment


Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
A surgical stent (a guide for recontouring tissues after extraction) is often necessary and more follow-up visits are needed for adjustments and re-fitting.


If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus>>>>>>>>....@@@@@@@@@@@@@
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth :luck:



 
7;9704431]thanx uabsfm & sekhon👍
1.In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% monoflourophospate the ampont of
flouride ions
A.400ppm>>>>>>>>>>>@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
B.1000ppm
c.1500ppm

D.4000ppm.........wrong answer dear🙁


For the purpose of enhancing the safe use of fluoride dentifrices by children, several measures should be taken to minimise the risk of developing dental fluorosis. Parents should be advised to supervise tooth cleaning closely using only small (pea-size) quantities of toothpaste.
Manufacturers should be encouraged to market a low fluoride dentifrice (e.g. 400-500 ppm fluoride) for infant use. This level of fluoride in toothpaste, given that all other sources are constant and low, should result in a total fluoride intake which does not exceed the recommended upper limit of 0.07 mg/kg of body weight for a child between 2 and 7 years of age.10 A low fluoride, sorbitol-based toothpaste designed specifically for children is available (Colgate Junior Toothpaste) and contains 0.304% MFP (400 ppm fluoride). Data from several independent studies indicate that, although a dose-response relationship does exist for fluoride levels in toothpaste and caries, use of a 400 ppm fluoride-containing paste by children under 7 years of age instead of the standard 1000 ppm fluoride paste should not increase their caries risk. There is currently no glycerol-based, 400-500 ppm fluoride toothpaste available in Australia.



2.Patient with sickle cell anaemia which is not true
A. Abnormal cell type...........true🙂
B. Be more prone to infarct...............true🙂
C.Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone
in oral caivity

D.Resistant to malaria parasites.................true🙂

so c) is answer of exclusion as others r true:luck:
The skeletal manifestations of sickle cell disease are the result of changes in bone and bone marrow caused by the chronic tissue hypoxia that is exacerbated by episodic occlusion of the microcirculation by the abnormal sickle cells. The main processes that lead to bone and joint destruction in sickle cell disease are infarction of bone and bone marrow, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, secondary osteomyelitis, and secondary growth defects.
When the rigid erythrocytes jam in the arterial and venous sinusoids of skeletal tissue, the resultant effect is intravascular thrombosis, which leads to infarction of bone and bone marrow. Repeated episodes of these crises eventually lead to irreversible bone infarcts and osteonecrosis, especially in weight-bearing areas. These areas of osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis) become radiographically visible as sclerosis of bone with secondary reparative reaction and eventually result in degenerative bone and joint destruction.
nfarction of bone and bone marrow in patients with sickle cell disease can lead to the following changes: osteolysis (in acute infarction), osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis/aseptic necrosis), articular disintegration, myelosclerosis, periosteal reaction (unusual in the adult), H vertebrae (steplike endplate depression also known as the Reynold sign or codfish vertebrae),dystrophic medullary calcification.and bone-within-bone appearance:luck::luck::luck:
The shortened survival time of the erythrocytes in sickle cell (10-20 days) leads to a compensatory marrow hyperplasia throughout the skeleton. The bone marrow hyperplasia has the resultant effect of weakening the skeletal tissue by widening the medullary cavities, replacing trabecular bone and thinning cortices.Deossification due to marrow hyperplasia can bring about the following changes in bone: decreased density of skull, decreased thickness of outer table of skull due to widening of diploe, hair on-end striations of the calvari and osteoporosis sometimes leading to biconcave vertebrae, coarsening of trabeculae in long and flat bones, and pathologic fractures.
Ans given for 2nd ques was 1st choice, i think that there is change in shape of rbc & here he asks abnormal cell type and also as u wrote that there occur widening of marrow spaces, so 3rd choice is still😴
 
hey sekhon, can u pls tell how pocket is coronal, sholdn't it be apical to JE?


hand rolled acrylic tray can’t be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@@@
needs to dry,
adhesive won’t stick


All trays, however, exhibited shrinkage during the 24-hour test period. Therefore, autopolymerizing acrylic resin tray materials should not be used for an impression the same day that they are made unless the tray is boiled as suggested by Pagniano et al.5 This agrees with research already completed even though the magnitude of shrinkage was considerably less than that reported in previous studies.'


previously rct’d tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment


Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
A surgical stent (a guide for recontouring tissues after extraction) is often necessary and more follow-up visits are needed for adjustments and re-fitting.


If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus>>>>>>>>....@@@@@@@@@@@@@
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth :luck:


 
True pocket is formed due to apical migration of junctional epithelium
that means the pocket is sulcus depth +attachment loss[cej +coronal of je DISTANCE]
sooooooooooooo

its always from marginal gingiva to coronal portion of je.....

🙂

CUD B ANS A FOR SICKLE CELL QUESTION AS WE CAN ASSUME THAT HEMOGLOBIN IS ABNORMAL NOT CELL......CELLS SHOW SICKLING ON HYPOXIC CONDITIONS ONLY👍👍👍......GUD TEAM WORK BENNY😀
 
Last edited:
Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?
200000000% SURE
ANSWER IS .....A
better fluoride released:laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh:
 
What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite>>>>>>>>>>>>>>????😕😕
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diamete
COMPANSATERY CURVES ARE USED FOR GOOD TEETH SETTING
...............

that most leveling was accomplished by the extrusion of the premolars. The continuous archwire technique is effective in leveling the COS in patients with Class II Division 1 deep-bite malocclusions treated without extractions when the initial COS is 2 to 4 mm. The leveling of the COS with the continuous archwire technique takes place by a combination of premolar extrusion and, to a lesser extent, incisor intrusion.:highfive::whoa:
 
incedence of cleft palate in general population in us is one on
2000 births
800 births>>Incidence (annual) of Cleft palate: about 1 in 700 births700 births
Incidence RateIncidence Rate of Cleft palate: approx 1 in 47,600 or 0.00% or 5,714 people in USA>>>>>>>>@@@

ans given is 800 , but I think for cleft palate alone incedence is 1 in 2000 births, while for cleft lip with or without cleft palate it is 1 in 700 births

stainless steel crown should normally extend below gingival crest apppx

1 )1 mm>>>>...@@@@@@@@@@@ 20000000% SURE😉 GIVEN IN MY STANDARD PEDO TEXTBOOK
2)1.5 mm
3)2 mm
4)none of the above
 
1. The histological base of a periodontal pocket may be defined as the


a. apical level of the periodontal fibers
b. apical level of the junctional epithelium
c. coronal level of the periodontal fibers
d. coronal level of the junctional epithelium

e. apical to the junctional epithelium

correct me if wrong
 
Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation-ans
I think its ans should be a?
200000000% SURE
ANSWER IS .....A better fluoride released:laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh:


thanx sekhon and benny for ans
 
Last edited:
plz ans to my these bunch of questions


196. dentist present his treatment to patient and think this is BEST for him/her is called

a. paternalism -ans
c. autonomy
c. mal

204. patient’s #8 and #9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one
a. redo PFM -ans
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to


209. who pay for most of dental care
a. government
b. insurance
c. cash -ans

214. preload of implant is comparable t what force
a. torque -ans

b. compressive

215. top of the implant is what mm from adjacent CEJ
a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm -ans
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm

225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa -ans , not sure
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins


250 which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic -ans
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses


252 Initial instrumentation for the biomechanical preparation of a vital tooth should begin at the canal orifice and should end at the
a. radiographic apex
b. cementodentinal junction -ans
c. cementoenamel junction
d. cement pulpal junction

258 a patient repeatedly criticizes a dentist’s actions. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to open a positive dialogue with the patient
a. maintain simple silence
b. state the patient’s concern -ans
c. ignore the patient’s complaints
d. recognize that the patient has a problem
e. correct the patient’s misconception


263 to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus -ans
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior

291 what is the advantage of sagittal split osteotomy over the transoral vertical subcondylar osteotomy
a. correct a mandibular protrusion
b. it is safer and in the operation room and less painful -ans
c. correct mandibular retrognathia
d. correct mandibular prognathism and apertognathia
e. all of the above
f. a,c, and d only

309 how long after eating is the PH in the mouth significantly lower
a. 10-30 min
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-4 min
d. 3-6 hours
e. 10-15 min



correct me if wrong
 
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment

means root canal treated tooth
hand rolled acrylic tray can’t be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@@@
needs to dry,
adhesive won’t stick


All trays, however, exhibited shrinkage during the 24-hour test period. Therefore, autopolymerizing acrylic resin tray materials should not be used for an impression the same day that they are made unless the tray is boiled as suggested by Pagniano et al.5 This agrees with research already completed even though the magnitude of shrinkage was considerably less than that reported in previous studies.'


previously rct’d tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false>>>>>>>>>>>>..@@@@@@@@@@
true/false
false/true
wat is rct'd?......>>>>>...tooth has already undergone root canal treatment



means root canal treated tooth
Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region👍
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determineocclusion
A surgical stent (a guide for recontouring tissues after extraction) is often necessary and more follow-up visits are needed for adjustments and re-fitting.


If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus>>>>>>>>....@@@@@@@@@@@@@
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth :luck:


 



please ans to these questions






depth of the sulcus is 5mm while the distance b/w CEJ and base of sulcus is 2 mm , what is the attachment loss?

here , ans should be 0, as gingival sulcus depth is grater than pocket depht and so psuedopocket, did my understanding is correct?

evaluation of scaling and root planning done after how many days?
7-10
14-21

dentist cements the porcelin veneer with the light cured resin and the pt returns with brownish descoloration at the margins why?

which of the following is not an advantage of Ni Ti over stainless steel file
maintains shape
flexibility
resistance to fracture

direction of wound healing after extraction in mand arch
outward and upward
inward and downward

which of the following is not recommended for pt who is on nicotinic deaddiction
mucous patches
nicotine gum
buproprione
nicotine nasal spray


plz clear my doubt[/QUOTE]
 
please ans to these questions






depth of the sulcus is 5mm while the distance b/w cej and base of sulcus is 2 mm , what is the attachment loss?

here , ans should be 0, as gingival sulcus depth is grater than pocket depht and so psuedopocket, did my understanding is correct?

evaluation of scaling and root planning done after how many days?
7-10👍
14-21

dentist cements the porcelin veneer with the light cured resin and the pt returns with brownish descoloration at the margins why?

which of the following is not an advantage of ni ti over stainless steel file
maintains shape
flexibility
resistance to fracture
👍
direction of wound healing after extraction in mand arch
outward and upward
inward and downward👍 Not sure

which of the following is not recommended for pt who is on nicotinic deaddiction
mucous patches
nicotine gum
buproprione
nicotine nasal spray👍


Plz clear my doubt
[/qu
 
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