Great case and so many ways to skin a cat. Long post, early apologies...If this was just a total knee case with unpredictable surgeon skill and speed...
I would be cautious with all the players who think this is a straightforward/easy case (esp for residents reading this post, if nothing else, consider this for your oral boards). If all goes well and your plan works, then yes, retrospectively it was easy! You can brag to your colleagues how doing the same thing you do for all your patients works for these sickies!
I would consider the pathology and it's spectrum and how the surgery and postop issues will effect this spectrum.
If I may dissect the the original information from the OP it may show the reasons why I would choose a particular technique over another.
1. Mild-mod RV dysfunction with minimal tricuspid regurgitation: This is not a great sign for me. Where did the OP find the RVSP? Usually this is from a TTE. If true, the TR would definitely not be mild. Was the RVSP obtained from a R heart cath? I doubt this, otherwise the OP would have stated other pressures, CVP, etc. What this translates to is that the R heart is not compensating as much for the increase in pulmonary vascular resistance and the patient is closer to experiencing uncompensated symptoms with hypoxia/hypercarbia/pain. Also, why is this patient not a candidate for inodilator or vasodilator therapy???
2. The SVR/afterload is high. Yes, everyone likes to chalk this up to anxiety. And yes, you'd be right in the majority of surgical patients. If I believe the patient and "140s/150s" is true, this could be the case. However, you cannot exclude the possibility that the SVR is attempting to compensate for an above baseline PVR. This patients current PVR:SVR ratio is 1/3. Normal ratio anyone??? Anesthetics obviously can tip the scale unfavorably. Some clues to chronically uncontrolled HTN are the grade II diastolic dysfunction with chronic LA high pressures. I'm sure this plus the increased PVR are worsening the patients R heart function over time.
3. SpO2 of 95% on RA. As you know the oxygen dissociation curve places this patient at a wide range of PAO2s with a steep slope for quick occurring hypoxemia. A piece of information I would have requested would have been an ABG and I'm sure you had the chemistry which shows the bicarb level. I wouldn't be surprised if the bicarb on the chem is 37 plus and the baseline CO2 on ABG is 55 plus. This info can sway your choice for techniques.
I personally would choose:
- Arterial line (able to perform ABGs and titrate meds to maintain SVR during the sympathoplegia you obtain from neuraxial anesthetics)
- Milrinone (to aid RV support, decrease PVR and improve diastology of the LV. This will also help the heart for any insults it may receive. Tourniquet, CO2 load, etc). Vasopressin for SVR maintenance.
- Facemask with strap from the anesthesia machine (this will allow for a more accurate ETCO2 read, and increase the ability to give true 100% FiO2
- Neuraxial of your choosing. CSE works, Spinal works, Spinal cath works as long as you know what you're doing. I personally would choose a CSE. The tuohy would save time with added tactile touch for earlier success IMO. Even if I didn't want to thread a catheter I would still use the tuohy.
- Regional for postop analgesia no brainer
- Sedation of your choice with the obvious goals. Precedex can work, straight versed (flumazenil location available) can work, propofol can work, Ketamine low dose with any of the prior mentioned can work. This matters less than ensuring adequate ventilation and oxygen delivery.
Ok I'm tired of typing