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On a different note; I would really like people's opinion on the sentiment below. I am not a close minded individual, yet I feel I have made a good point here, and want to know what others think.
Many people who check of the little "Caucasian" box never owned a slave in their entire family history. Millions of immigrants from Russia, Poland , heck, all of Europe have come to this country (esp. oh I dunno, around Hitler's time) and have been economically disadvantaged for generations, and have no "debt to society"; kind of thing that could justify URM admission over any of them. It is a reverse discrimination system - being white*, regardless of origin, disqualifies you from certain aid available strictly to non-whites. If i put any URM in place of white* [above], it would NOT be okay. I don't agree with this.
If you do disagree, I want to hear why (really; I never claimed to be right all the time), but don't turn this personal.
It is very easy to wash your hands clean of the racial mess in today's America by distancing your ethnic group from slavery. The country where I was born and raised is infact the only nation in history to import Africans for non-slavery purposes (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aliyah_from_Ethiopia). In addition, Jews have been disadvantaged and descriminated against historically much, MUCH more than any other group.
Despite how distant you believe certain ethnic groups to be from slave ownership, realize this: The definition of "whiteness" is far from biologically immutable, and is instead socially constructed, fluid, and historically relative. Ethnic groups that arrived at this country economically or socially disadvantaged (Italians, Irish, Jews) rised to their current ethnic status, to some extent, by distancing and distinguishing themselves from other ethnic groups still considered "non-white" (mainly, African-Americans). While a hundred years ago, the definition of "white" encompassed little more than WASP, it has since expanded to include eastern Europeans, middle easterners, and south Asians.
Despite our present color blindness, and blind belief in the success of the racial movement of the 1960's, blacks on average (when adjusted for inflation) earn less today than in the 1970's. There are neighborhoods in NYC today where the only factor distinguishing the population from a de-facto apartheid is 0.2 measly percent. African-Americans continue to be discrimated against in mortgages, health-care, education, and the job market.Racial inequality, whether we like to admit is or not, is still very much a systemic problem in the states, and the extent to which a "caucasian" will subtly benefit from it is enormous.
The way I think of AA is not as a "the least we could do to make up for slavery" policy. When it comes to medicine, it's a policy that's in the best interest of our patients. You can speak to patients for hours about the science behind, and benefits of a colonoscopy or a mammogram, but if You can't appeal to their fears and needs, you can forget it.
I hoped that answered your question. There is endless research on this and I'm sure others could manipulate the data to reach vastly different conclusion. Which ever conclusion you choose to reach, please at least try to educate yourself on these issues before saying "I never owned a slave and thus have nothing to do with it." Your patients will be better off for it.

