I'm sure it could be a factor, but the ability to produce lactase is present in all of us from birth, just that the regulatory factors determine whether it's produced at any given time. So in a person who is lactose intolerant due to "genetic" factors (aka us normal people
), it doesn't make any difference whether they do or don't (try to
) consume milk, without supplementing with lactase they won't be able to break down lactose because the gene is permanently downregulated. But in a person who doesn't drink milk regularly despite possessing the mutation that allows for lactase production later in life, it's quite possible that lactase production could decrease due to the body not needing it. The difference is that this would be more likely to be transient, and starting to drink milk again would be painful at first due to the previous loss of gene expression, but the gene could be upregulated again if lactose continues to be present. Same goes for bacteria - in fact the lac operon in prokaryotes is very widely used in intro bio and genetics courses as a very clear example of regulation of gene expression.
Does that make sense? Sometimes it's hard for me to discuss genetic and epigenetic things with people without forgetting that not everyone has the same interest and background that I do in genetics.